A decree that has no taste
Rabbi, why is a decree that is void for no reason not automatically voided? And even a regular court can void it! What is the explanation for this?? And I am talking about decrees that we clearly know are void for no reason.
First, if it is known for certain that the reason was nullified, there are opinions that the decree is indeed nullified. The Ravada speaks of a bi’d that is not great in wisdom and minyan, but the Rosh’s response states that the decree is nullified. The subject is discussed in detail in the third book of the trilogy.
I assume the reason is to strengthen the status of the rabbinical decrees and to ensure that they are not easily repealed.
I didn't quite understand the question, is there anyone who would say that a law that the Knesset enacted and its purpose is null and void, it expires anyway, the Knesset itself will repeal the law. Without this, there is a fundamental fear of anarchy and disorder.
So what's the difference?
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