Homo sapiens – modern man
In the SD
Hello Rabbi,
How can we reconcile the scientific method that holds that modern man existed approximately two hundred thousand years ago, when the number we count for the creation of man is only 6,000 years?
It is important for me to note that the question here is not about the actual time that the world has existed (which is estimated to the best of my knowledge at about 14 billion years), which can be rationalized in many ways, such as that the six days of creation were six eras of billions of years. Here, on the other hand, we are talking about a count that we count after the end of these eras, a count that, in my understanding, refers to the moment when the first Adam was created, and it is difficult to say that they only started counting time after tens of thousands of years.
I would appreciate the Rabbi’s answer or a reference to an existing answer.
Thank you very much!
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Moshe wrote:
First of all, no one came and said, “I’m a descendant of that person,” and no one said that his grandfather was some ancient person from X years ago, and no one said how the world was created, or how the first person came into existence, or where his partner came from. Now, if you tell me that the world has existed for at least 200,000 years, then you have to come up with answers: What happened in the world, what is our purpose in the world, who did they believe in, what did they eat, what were their customs, how did they know how to count, how many days did they have in the week, and so on and so forth. Who invented the weekly rule, who invented their language, there is no information, no heroic stories, no survivors, nothing, but carbon 14 speaks for all these answers – does that seem logical to you?
And they wrote (Moses?):
Homo sapiens – modern man First of all, no one came and said, “I’m a descendant of that person,” and no one said that his grandfather was some ancient person from X years ago, and no one said how the world was created, or how the first person came into existence, or where his partner came from. Now, if you tell me that the world has existed for at least 200,000 years, then you have to come up with answers: What happened in the world, what is our purpose in the world, who did they believe in, what did they eat, what were their customs, how did they know how to count, how many days did they have in the week, and so on and so forth. Who invented the weekly rule, who invented their language, there is no information, no heroic stories, no survivors, nothing, but carbon 14 speaks for all these answers – does that seem logical to you?
Friends, don’t open a new thread about an existing question. In the future, I’ll just delete it.
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To your question, just a few days ago there was a question here about it.
Here I found:
https://mikyab.net/%D7%A9%D7%95%D7%AA/%D7%AA%D7%95%D7%A7%D7%A4%D7%94-%D7%A9%D7%9C-%D7%94%D7%90%D7%9E%D7%95%D7%A0%D7%94/#comment-14702
By the way,
Modern man emerged from Homo sapiens about 60,000 years ago, probably with the emergence of language. Only then did archaeologists find modern art, advanced technology, and creativity. It is worth reading a review of the period in Yuval Noah Harari's “A Brief History of Humanity” (I think Diamond also deals with the period in ”The Third Chimpanzee” and ”Guns Germs and Steel” and others).
Thank you very much, sorry for repeating the question. I was actually looking for a question on the subject, but I didn't find a similar title to this topic.
A. What is still difficult for me is that it is seemingly necessary to distort the scriptures too much to adapt them to what is accepted in today's science, so if any interpretation is accepted, then what is the meaning of the verses, I can explain them however I want and I don't actually have any obligation, and because of that they lose their value.. Doesn't that bother you?
B. It is also important for me to know whether this approach is scientifically verified with strong evidence or whether it is a nice theory that is not sufficiently well-founded, and its evidence can also be explained in other equally good ways.
C. As a continuation of B, do you hold the claim that the flood that occurred in the world caused the formation of many fossils in a way that looks as if they were formed millions of years ago? If this is accepted, it can indeed explain in a certain way the fossilized skulls that supposedly date back to a period of two hundred thousand years ago.
Thanks in advance!
A. There is no need to distort the Scriptures at all. They do not describe history but norms. Your argument about their meaning is my argument about studying the Bible in general. Indeed, I do not see much value in studying it nowadays.
B. What approach? The world is not 5700 years old. Homo sapiens is also much older. As far as I know, this is well verified.
C. I don't think so. Usually the argument is that there are no indications at all of a global flood. We have discussed this here in the past as well.
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