The Torah rule makes no sense at all.
The eighth root of the Rambam is mentioned: You shall not go out as the slaves went out, and this one of ours has already disappeared, until it is said, “You shall not go out as the slaves went out.” And he did not know that it was a negation, not a warning. In this light, as I will explain: And this is because God has already judged whoever strikes his Canaanite slave or maidservant, and at the time of the beating, one of the heads of his limbs is missing, that he goes out as a free man. And it would occur to us that if this is true of a Canaanite slave, how much more so of a Hebrew woman. And that when she is missing one of the heads of her limbs, she goes out as a free man. And this is a negation of the law from her, by saying, “You shall not go out as the slaves went out”. As if to say: ‘He does not obligate her to go out as a free man due to the lack of a limb from her limbs,’ and this is a negation of the law from her, not a warning. However, it is difficult for me, logically, to understand that a slave whose limbs are missing by the Lord goes out as a free man completely, while his Hebrew mother, who is of a higher rank than him, will not go out as a free man? It doesn’t work out… Let’s say he cut off his finger – and he goes free, and if he cuts off his mother’s finger, he’ll just pay her back and she won’t go free. How? – Is that Pierre?
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I didn't understand the third sentence. Why what happened, he would cut off her finger?
Assuming that she or her father agree, that he should set her free - for the finger, is there a way?
What does the slave owe his master (in money) to be set free in exchange for a missing limb? And if he removed two limbs, what is the ruling?
If they didn't want her to be his mother, he wouldn't have sold her. If they both agree, perhaps there is room for such a decision, and the judge is of course authorized to make such a decision. Just as a rapist must bear the consequences of his rape, but that's only if she wants to.
If so, she should convert to Christianity as soon as she goes to work for her debtor, because that way she will earn more if he hurts her finger, for example. And then if he hurts her, she will be free anyway, and if not, then she has lost nothing because she would have remained a Jew until the debt was paid. Does the rabbi agree?
Why does the Jew have the right to beat his Jewish mother?
??? What? What? What?
He has no right. Except she doesn't go free.
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