Whether to tradition or to the Bible
I would love to know if a rabbi has a plausible explanation for this passage, which seems very puzzling to any intelligent person. After all, it is clear that we have both the letters and the punctuation, and it is impossible to follow only one of them. For example, in Sanhedrin 3:-4. It is clear to everyone that although it is written “Yirshi’en” (will condemn), the intention is for the many who condemn. Otherwise, it would be written “Yirshi’en” (will condemn). etc.
It is difficult to elaborate here, and it depends on the Rishonim’s methods. In general, if the tradition means that what is decisive is the written word. The Bible is an interpretation and does not determine the halakha. If the tradition sees the form of reading as part of what was given at Sinai. It also depends on whether the dispute is only when there is a contradiction between the Bible and tradition or not (the Rishonim disagreed on this), and more. It also depends on the question of whether this is a teaching that he demanded or simplified. In short, it is difficult to elaborate here. I remember lessons I gave on this, but for some reason I can only find it very briefly in lesson 12 here: https://onedrive.live.com/?authkey=%21AEouDri5fuHfPes&id=395204EC53F39CE0%21581&cid=395204EC53F39CE0
Again, I saw it at greater length in lesson 14 and the sources cited in the files next to it here: https://onedrive.live.com/?authkey=%21AMbiFNQNnxwxPk8&id=395204EC53F39CE0%21584&cid=395204EC53F39CE0
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