Women in the cause
I did not accept the words of the Rema, who writes on the one hand that all our vows are important, but on the other hand, they relied on the method of the Rabi’ah, which says that there is no need to convert. According to his method, women are more important than men? After all, women are equal to men?
I do understand historically how the custom of women carrying a full load of hair developed, the question is whether there is a halakhic mechanism that justifies the custom.
2- Did the Rabbi write in the past about the Ritva that speaks of the reference as “semi” from the Torah? I would be grateful if you could please provide a reference (also to the Rabbi’s books)
Thank you very much!
I once saw a beautiful explanation (I think in the book of the Rabbi from Maor Yisrael). His argument is that according to the Rabbi that the Idna does not have a sabbath, the obligation of the sabbath of our time is nullified, and this does not mean seeing oneself as if one had left Egypt (and as is known, even during the Exodus from Egypt they did not have a sabbath. This is a Roman custom). But the mitzvah still remains to show oneself as if one had left Egypt, and this of course does not depend on the custom of this time (after all, you are showing what was then), but rather in the form of a general Sage ruling (they apparently thought that the sabbath was also in Egypt). This obligation is imposed only on the one who conducts the seder (in the sestma, this is the man) who is the narrator and shows the sabbaths what happened in the Exodus. Therefore, although women of the Idna are as important and obligated to have a sabbath as men, the obligation of the sabbath is nullified for both them and men according to the Rabbi. But the obligation of showing oneself as part of the story of the Exodus from Egypt remains, and this is imposed on the man. The Vespers of the NEP: 1. This obligation does not apply to men at the table who are not conducting the seder. 2. If a woman conducts the seder, she is obligated to perform the seder.
I did not write about the Ritva in detail and directly, but I discussed it in my book Ruach Ha-Mishpat. There I showed that the relationship/connection between a halakha and the verse from which it comes is on a continuum of levels of connection. There is a halakha that is actually there (simple interpretation) and is the same as the Torah. There is a halakha that branches off from there and these are the midrashic laws that the Rambam considers to be the words of scribes. There are laws that are not related to the verses at all (the LBM and decrees and regulations). The reference of the Ritva is third level after the last (there is a connection to the verse but it is not really in it. This is the spirit of the verse).
Thank you very much
What is the opinion of the Rabbi Sober regarding the Halacha and how does the Rabbi lead in his house regarding the reason?
With us, they are all mothers, except for those who occasionally overlap like a charm.
Why not say more simply that the Rema understood that the law is like the Rabbi and therefore women can rely on it. But that men will be stricter and continue their custom. A simpler explanation is natural.
That's how it's usually studied, but it's not reasonable. It's not presented as a law of sufficiency.
On the holiday I heard another author, Rabbi Eliyahu Diskin, who wanted to say that for men there was a rule to make up because that was the way of freedom, but the rule is about the action itself, and therefore even though a reason is invalid, the rule is not invalid (according to the Rishonim who disagree about the rabbinate).
But for women, the rule was initially “a woman whose way is to make up all year round,” and therefore, even though their way is not to make up, even though the rule is in place, they are exempt from the reason.
And this is the division between women and men. And the reason that the Rema wrote that they relied on the rabbinate for women is in conjunction with the following
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