How do you determine the laws of modesty when they are subjective? Question about column 499 (A look at modesty and its meaning)
Peace and blessings, Miki,
In column 499, you said that in your opinion, the laws of modesty are subjective to each society (as the Hadbarei Hamudot opinion) so how are the laws of modesty determined?
If society is secular, are the laws of modesty dictated by secular modesty? What is it anyway? How can one decide rules in such a situation? Who determines? I think that such a perception practically sterilizes the laws of modesty. Is it your fault?
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I didn't assume this. I read the column and was convinced that there are subjective laws. I asked a practical question: Who determines the laws if they are subjective?
You do assume that, otherwise you wouldn't ask who determines and you wouldn't assume that such a situation empties the field of content. Every person and also social norms determine this. There are of course customs involved in such a field.
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