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Harp in Torah – Definition

שו”תHarp in Torah – Definition
asked 2 years ago

What do you think is the definition of a ‘villain in the presence of Torah’?
Does this definition fit a person who murders by altering and by mistake? That is, is this an action that is halakhically permissible and morally forbidden? Or is this a definition within the law. That is, is the person somehow relieved of a halakhic obligation and thereby misses the meaning and content of the religious commandment? Or both?
Best regards,

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0 Answers
מיכי Staff answered 2 years ago

I didn’t understand the difference. You’re asking whether what he does commit is necessarily a moral offense or whether there could also be religious offenses? Putting grain through the roofs to get rid of the tithe (blessings to her) is also abominations under the Torah.
A person who murders through sin and intimidation is a real halachic offense.

דוד replied 2 years ago

In my opinion, the questioner's intention is:
Does the "villain" refer to a doctrine separate from the "Torah" (say, "morality"). And that means that you are completely fine from a Torah perspective but a villain from a moral perspective. Or is the villain also a Torah title and the intention is that you are a villain from a Torah perspective even though technically you did not sin, because you cheated the system but you sinned to the point (I hope I was clear)

ש' replied 2 years ago

David, I think you wrote well.

I will put it this way: Does the ’nevlot’ refer to moral shortcomings (even though according to Halacha he may be ‘mehadrin’) or does the ’nevlot’ refer to evading religious goals (even though his actions comply with Halacha rules and the law)? Or a third option that the ’nevlot’ can apply to both.

מיכי Staff replied 2 years ago

So that's what I understood and answered that.

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