discrimination
Hello,
What is the reason for the discrimination between Ashkenazim and Mizrahi? I never understood it, we’re all the same, aren’t we? Every person deserves the right to progress and develop equally…
It is true that Ashkenazim, from what I understand, have taken over key positions and come from more developed countries, but it seems that even a successful Mizrahi person can encounter certain difficulties or certain stigmas when it comes to high-level key positions in society.
Do you think that one day the stigmas and discrimination that exist among members of the community will be blurred in the future?
I didn’t understand the question. What discrimination are you talking about? Too general a question.
It may be that today it is much less, but it is known that Ashkenazim had some kind of advantage in terms of their ”connections”, Mizrahi in many fields had difficulty being accepted into elite ranks such as the Supreme Court, seeing that there was an influence cannot be ignored,
Are you telling me that there is no discrimination between Mizrahi and Ashkenazim in fact? Isn't that a bit of ignoring the rest of the picture in which we clearly see that there is an Ashkenazi majority in certain places? Again, maybe today it is less and this is encouraging, but in the past it was much more prominent, so my question is what did this stem from in the first place? Assuming that we agree that we are all equal in abilities regardless of community, then what caused this discrimination anyway?
You are mixing up areas and still not clarifying the question. First, just because there are differences does not mean there is discrimination. Discrimination is a deliberate and unjustified act.
As for the reasons, there are many but I do not think that this site and I are an address for sociological research, certainly not in such a general and vague formulation
I'm writing this to break the taboo on “racism” (in quotation marks)
I haven't researched the matter, but it seems that Ashkenazim start with some advantage. Maybe genetics, like IQ. Or a cultural thing, like academic affiliation, etc.’.
It doesn't really have to be true, but it seems quite likely and no one says it because it's “racist”
All (if I'm not mistaken) Jewish Nobel Prize winners are Ashkenazi. A bit suspicious.
It's okay to pay attention to facts, like blacks in the N. B. I. have a really disproportionate representation, or they are involved in crime with a huge overrepresentation. Of course, this could be due to a variety of reasons. Cultural, genetic, or that whites are generally to blame for everything (the popular opinion)
Regarding the N. B. I. It is very difficult to believe that this is a result of culture (I am not talking about a culture of many generations that has influenced genetics, which is certainly possible and probably also true).
It is also permissible to note that certain genetic groups are more academic and perhaps even, God forbid, more ‘smarter’.
It is very important to note that all these phenomena speak of the general and the average, most of the details in all groups overlap and the difference is expressed in the extreme (a lot of blacks in the NBA, does not mean that a specific black is necessarily good at basketball. Also, an Ashkenazi can be stupid and a Sephardi can be a genius)
David, you are repeating a common mistake. The number of Mizrahi Jewish Nobel Prize winners is probably not less than that of Ashkenazi Jews. This was brought up here on the site in the past (for some reason I can't find the place now).
Now I found two sources on Google:
https://www.makorrishon.co.il/opinion/589039/
https://he-il.facebook.com/hakeshet/posts/%D7%90%D7%96-%D7%9B%D7%9E%D7%94-%D7%96%D7%95%D7%9B%D7%99-%D7%A4%D7%A8%D7%A1-%D7%A0%D7%95%D7%91%D7%9C-%D7%9E%D7%96%D7%A8%D7%97%D7%99%D7%9D-%D7%94%D7%99%D7%95/637202729631217/
By the way, in my opinion it is also logically not true that most of the details are the same and the difference is only at the extreme. On the contrary, the explanation suggests that the extremes are actually closer. There are geniuses and complete fools everywhere, the question is how many and what is in between.
Mainly what I wanted to convey is that it is permissible to think that maybe there is no discrimination and Ashkenazim are simply better suited for the specific roles. Maybe not. But it seems that it is not even allowed to think about it.
I am glad to see that this is a mistake regarding the Nobel Prize.
Regarding the differences in the extremes. It is difficult to define a middle ground. It is a common mistake to call a random person in a group – an average person. Maybe you have met the most extreme. I meant that if we say there are 100 Ashkenazim and 100 Sephardim, when for example, the Sephardim are 10% more charitable, then we would see 10 Ashkenazim at the bottom of the scale – incredibly evil-hearted. 90 Ashkenazim and Sephardim in the middle and 10 Sephardim righteous of the generation at the top.
You can see this in many areas.
From my impression Jews are terribly stupid, and yet very prominent in almost every intellectual field.
From my basic knowledge, blacks are not that good at basketball for the illusory representation in almost every league you will find.
Etc’ Etc’
By the way, the Facebook post you included is quite helpful in the direction I'm thinking of, "academic culture" that was brought mainly by European Jews to the table.
He claims that more Sephardim have won the Nobel Prize than Ashkenazim in relation to their percentage of the population - a total of eleven winners, some of whom were European Sephardim like Niels Bohr. Which could perhaps indicate European education and academic culture as a motive and not necessarily genes - I'm all for it.
So it's still worth considering the option that maybe Ashkenazim or European Sephardim simply get more certain roles because they are indeed more suitable.
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