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What is the validity of the principle of sufficient taste?

שו”תCategory: philosophyWhat is the validity of the principle of sufficient taste?
asked 1 year ago

Hello Rabbi. I had a hard time with this principle, if you ask what the point of the laws of nature as they are, they always have been, they had no beginning, they could not have been any other way. If the Rabbi accepts the axiom that the laws of nature have always been, there is nothing to say about why they are the way they are because they have always been that way. And even if the Rabbi claims that they were created and could have been created differently, there are still debates in cosmology about whether there was a beginning or not.

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מיכי Staff answered 1 year ago

I explained that this is the difference between an argument from causality and an argument from sufficient reason. Even if the laws have always existed, one can certainly wonder why they are the way they are. The question is not who and when created them, but why they are the way they are and not otherwise.
I have previously discussed the difference between the necessity of reality and the eternal. Something eternal can be unnecessary, and then one can wonder why it is so.

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