Emotions/feelings and objectivity
In several places you told the story of the collection of Kobritch’s waterfall, and you argued there that the emotion is an expression of something objective in the world (that the waterfall is beautiful).
Do you think this pattern can apply to all senses? For example, someone could claim that a certain dish is delicious, and then claim that if I don’t find it delicious, there’s something wrong with me. I don’t “see” the aesthetics of the dish.
The same argument can be made about music, and even certain smells (objectivity of aesthetics as to music and smells).
What is your opinion on the matter? Are all of these truly objectively aesthetic, or do you separate some senses from others (for example, sight yes, and taste no). If this is option B, what is your reasoning?
In other words, I am asking about the nature of aesthetics.
thanks!
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Yes, it is certainly tricky to claim this about taste and smell.
But the question that arises here is whether it is possible to say something intelligent about it, for example that there is some strong intuition that aesthetics is related to the sense of sight but not to the sense of taste.
Or some other reasoning of course.
Because it seems that if we apply the idea of the expression of emotion/sensation to objects perceived by the sense of sight, there is no apparent reason not to apply it to the sense of taste as well.
Do you have any particular insights into the matter?
not
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