A Bayesian Look at the Physico-Theological Argument (Column 506)
With God’s help
Disclaimer: This post was translated from Hebrew using AI (ChatGPT 5 Thinking), so there may be inaccuracies or nuances lost. If something seems unclear, please refer to the Hebrew original or contact us for clarification.
The next two columns are devoted to different perspectives on the High Holy Days. The first will deal with a mathematical “coronation” of God—naturally, in honor of Rosh Hashanah—and the second will take a different, more topical angle on processes of repentance, in anticipation of Yom Kippur. In this column I’ll discuss the existence of God, at the intersection of physics, philosophy, and probability.
Over the past two weeks, two recordings were published of a discussion I had with Prof. Elam Gross on physics and God (see Part A and Part B). In preparation for our conversation I read a paper he published in 2011 in Odyssey on science and God. The main points came up briefly in our talk, and here I wanted to expand on them a bit more. The second part of the column is a little formal, but it really requires no special background, and I think it provides important tools for probabilistic thinking about various claims and stances.
“God of the gaps”
Gross devotes a fair bit of his article to the “God of the gaps.” This is the common label for an approach that tries to prove the existence of God from gaps in scientific knowledge—i.e., if science can’t explain something, that proves there is a God. Quite a few creationists adopt this approach and rejoice at every scientific gap they think they’ve found. But among sober religious thinkers today, it’s widely accepted that this approach is both incorrect and unhelpful. The arguments for why it is unhelpful are simple (because when new scientific knowledge is discovered that fills the gap, people will conclude there is no God). But for me these are irrelevant considerations. The important question is whether these arguments are correct—not whether they are tactically helpful or harmful.
On the substantive level, one can challenge such arguments in several ways. First, the fact that we don’t understand something says nothing about its origin. There are scientific processes we don’t yet know or understand. Does that mean their source is God? Conversely, is something we do understand not from God? Second, scientific knowledge accumulates over the years, and therefore the existence of a gap only tells us we should increase research efforts to try to close it. In the past, people could “prove” the existence of God from the whole world because they understood almost nothing scientifically. Today our scientific knowledge is far broader, and so the “proofs” of old are now revealed as nonsense. There’s no reason to think the same won’t happen to contemporary “proofs” that rely on today’s gaps.
This is why I oppose—both tactically and substantively—the war that creationists wage against evolution. Not because all their claims are wrong (as the neo-Darwinists assert). Some of them are good claims. My problem is the very methodology of building faith in God on gaps in scientific knowledge. Incidentally, for the very same reason I do not accept the parallel assumption of atheist neo-Darwinists that if evolution explains everything then there is no God. They are making the same mistake as their fundamentalist creationist opponents. God is not part of the scientific explanation and is not supposed to be. Therefore, a lack of explanation does not prove God’s existence, and by the same token, the presence of an explanation does not render Him unnecessary.
Gross on “God of the gaps”: an immanent God
Gross recounts a meeting he had with several other physicists who were dealing with God and science:
In 2007, five physicists sat down for lunch during a conference on the statistics of hypotheses related to the search for the Higgs boson. We discussed a book titled “The Probability of God,” which had come out at that time and purported to calculate—using Bayes’s formula—the probability of God’s existence.
Although we all dismissed the book as utter nonsense, the conversation evolved and we found ourselves sliding into a heated discussion. After hours, we reached a kind of agreement on the question: “What is the scientist’s God?”
I don’t know the book in question, and as for Bayes’s formula as a proof of God’s existence, I’ll get to that below. Immediately thereafter he continues and describes that group’s attitude toward the “God of the gaps”:
Gaps in knowledge are the intellectual food of every scientist. Wherever a question is posed or a theoretical problem in an explanation is discovered, that is where the scientist steps in to propose a solution. Thus, for example, Marie Curie studied Becquerel rays, which turned out to be radioactive radiation. Scientists seek to close these gaps in knowledge and to offer explanations for phenomena that previously were explained only by invoking the power of God.
“God of the gaps” is therefore threatened by science. Even if St. Augustine said it in jest, he didn’t say for nothing that before God created the heavens and the earth, He created hell for those who delve too deeply into inquiry. Scientists necessarily shrink the space left for the “God of the gaps.”
If so, can a religious scientist believe in the “God of the gaps”? In my view the answer must be no. The “God of the gaps” is transcendent by nature and definition. He is disconnected from corporeal man and is almost withdrawn. This is a God who doesn’t want the accelerator to work, because the accelerator’s work would close a huge gap in knowledge, thereby necessarily reducing His presence.
I’m entirely with him in these paragraphs. I truly do not believe in a “God of the gaps” who feels threatened by science. A scientist, like anyone else, should not build his faith on gaps in scientific knowledge. Such gaps should spur vigorous research to try to close them, as I explained above.
But then he immediately continues and speaks of the only alternative available to the believing scientist:
By contrast, there is another possibility—an immanent God. This God is personal, fills only the gaps in the soul, and has mystical roots; therefore it is hard to argue with Him or to support Him scientifically. If a scientist has a God, He must, therefore, be immanent.
For him, if God does not belong to the scientific plane, what remains is a subjective, personal God that pertains only to the experiential-mystical realm.
First, a note on terminology. Gross calls such a conception “immanence,” but that is not what is usually meant by this term. In religious and philosophical thought there are two different conceptions of God: transcendence (God above and beyond the world—what Kabbalistic terminology calls the “Sovev”) and immanence (God within the world—the Kabbalistic “Memalei”). Gross doesn’t mean either of these, since both address a God who exists in objective reality and whose existence is a factual claim. He is speaking of a psychological-experiential God (who himself could be immanent or transcendent).
Talk of such a God can be read in two ways: (1) factual atheism (since factually and scientifically there is no God) with a religious feeling (which, as is known, exists among atheists as well); (2) the feeling and mysticism are non-scientific indications of God’s factual existence. As noted, option (1) is atheism in disguise, but option (2) is quite common among believers and especially among perplexed scientists whose science contradicts their beliefs (in our conversation he mentioned several such cases). The “obvious” way out for them is to move the discussion from the plane of facts and science to mysticism.
All this may be true for certain people, but Gross presumes a necessary dichotomy, and in that he errs.
The status of philosophy
Gross assumes that if one cannot bring scientific evidence for God’s existence, what remains is mysticism and subjectivity. But he ignores another, third category that is very important for our purposes: philosophy. There can be philosophical arguments for God’s existence even if one cannot reach Him by scientific means. Philosophy is not mysticism, and it does not necessarily belong to the subjective-experiential plane (see my series of columns defining what philosophy is, 155 – 160).
In my book God Plays Dice, in the third conversation of my book The Prime Existent, and in many other places, I drew a distinction between a physico-theological argument “within the laws” and one “outside the laws.” The “within the laws” argument is essentially the “God of the gaps”: gaps in scientific knowledge—cases or phenomena that the natural laws we know cannot explain—lead to the conclusion that there is a God. This is an argument within the laws, since it keeps the discussion within the scientific framework governed by natural laws. But as I suggested there, the more up-to-date physico-theological argument is an argument outside the laws. If the world indeed contains special natural laws that allow for chemistry, biology, and life, that itself shows there is a God who created them. Note that this argument does not play inside the framework of the laws but outside it. It hangs on the question of why the laws are as they are at all, and not on what happens within the framework of the laws. I won’t get into the refutations and details of the argument, as I’ve discussed it extensively elsewhere. My purpose here is merely to situate it within the discussion and explain its place in it.
This argument does not belong to the “God of the gaps” genre, since it is not built on a gap in scientific knowledge. Science does not deal with explaining the laws but with explaining phenomena by means of the laws (Karl Hempel’s deductive-nomological schema illustrates this well). Even when a new natural law is discovered, it is done by constructing a framework that allows us to explain phenomena, not on the basis of more fundamental laws that explain the new law. Moreover, even if at some point Einstein’s heart’s desire were fulfilled and a unified field theory were discovered—that is, a single comprehensive law responsible for all of physics (and perhaps through it for all natural laws in general, if you’re a reductionist)—that law itself would still require explanation.[1] That explanation would not be scientific but philosophical, since a scientific explanation is always given in terms of some system of natural laws. The explanation for the laws of nature themselves is the province of philosophy. In other words, this is a philosophical gap that cannot, in principle, be closed by science; therefore it is not a “God of the gaps” argument.
A note on infinite regress
I said I wouldn’t get into the details of the argument and refutations of it. Still, I’ll briefly remark on a point that arose in our discussion. Arguments of this type assume that if there is a world, there is probably something that created it. The alternative is infinite regress—i.e., something created the world and something else created that, and so on ad infinitum. In the second conversation of my book The Prime Existent I explained why such an explanation is unacceptable to most philosophers. I argued there that in my view it’s not only unacceptable; it’s not an explanation at all but an evasion of explanation. The best-known parable that illustrates this is William James’s story about the Greek physicist who explained to his listeners that the world stands on the back of a giant turtle. When asked what the turtle stands on, he calmly replied: on another turtle. And so he was asked again and again until his patience ran out: Don’t you understand?! It’s turtles all the way down.
In the first part of our talk Gross mentioned this story and implicitly rejected the “turtles all the way down” thesis, but that didn’t stop him in the second part from wondering where I got the assumption that infinite regress is a problematic type of explanation. Later he even proposed the thesis of a “breathing universe,” i.e., universes that are created and perish one after another (although he conceded there is no empirical hint of this and that it doesn’t constitute a sufficient explanation)—which is just another version of “turtles all the way down.” Proposing such a picture indicates that in his view the existence of the universe indeed requires explanation (hence we generate other universes that begot it), while at the same time he ignores the problematic nature of infinite explanatory chains.
Good, we’ve now reached our topic, whose title, as mentioned, is Bayesian reflections on the physico-theological argument.
Prelude: conditional probability
Conditional probability and Bayes’s formula have come up more than once in my columns (see, for example, column 402). So here I’ll review them only briefly.
In general, the probability of any event depends on the prior information I have about it. Additional information changes the probability of the event. If we look, for example, at a fair die, the probability that it lands on 5 is 1/6 (because that’s one of six possible outcomes). But if I know the result is odd, the probability rises to 1/3 (one of three possibilities). Additional information changes the probability of every event and usually improves my ability to predict it in advance.
Let’s denote the event “the die landed on 5” by A. Its probability is P(A) = 1/6. Denote the event “the outcome is odd” by B. The conditional probability that the result is 5 given that we know it was odd is: P(A|B) = 1/3. This is the probability of A given B. It is, of course, different from the probability of A without any prior information (other than that the die is fair—which itself is prior information).
But conditional probability is tricky. There is a difference that’s very easy to miss between the opposite conditional probabilities: P(A|B) and P(B|A). For example, if we ask what is the probability that the result was odd given that we know it was 5, the answer is of course 1 (we have full information, so we can know the answer with certainty). Thus, there is no simple relationship between conditional probabilities when you reverse the order of the variables. Consider another example. Suppose I don’t know whether the die is fair. Denote the claim “the die is fair” by C. Assuming the die is fair, what is the probability of an odd result? The answer is, of course: P(B|C) = 1/2. Now ask the reverse question: given that half the results were odd, what is the probability that the die is fair? That is the conditional probability P(C|B). It is very hard to know. It depends on the number of rolls, on the nature of the die’s unfairness, and more. Consider a concrete example. Suppose we rolled a die twice and got 1 and 4. Does that tell us the die is fair? Not at all. Such a tiny number of rolls tells us almost nothing about the die’s nature.
The important lesson for our purposes is that knowing one conditional probability does not tell us much about the reverse conditional probability. These matters are very confusing, and I have given other examples in the past (see, for example, columns 144 – 145, 176, and more).
Another prelude: Bayes’s formula
The way to reverse the order of variables in conditional probability is by means of Bayes’s formula (or the formula for total probability). To understand it, we need to consider the probability that both events A and B occur, P(A∧B). This can be calculated in two different ways: (1) the probability that A occurs times the conditional probability that B occurs given A; (2) the probability that B occurs times the conditional probability that A occurs given B.[2] Thus, the results of these two calculations must be identical:
P(A∧B) = P(B|A)·P(A) = P(A|B)·P(B)
We have found a relationship between the conditional probability P(A|B) and the reverse conditional probability P(B|A). Naturally, the relationship depends on the unconditional probabilities of A and B. For example, in the case above (A = the result is 5; B = the result is odd), we know three probabilities: P(B) = 1/2, P(A) = 1/6, P(B|A) = 1. From this you immediately get the fourth: P(A|B) = 1/3. That means that if the result obtained was odd, the chance it was a 5 is 1/3.
Elam Gross and colleagues on conditional probability and Bayes
We saw above that the five physicists in that story mocked the attempt to prove God’s existence using Bayes’s formula and conditional probability. In another passage, Gross goes into more detail:
The hypothesis of God’s existence should be tested by the scientist by answering the question: given the data we have (the Earth, the Sun, the Moon, stars, a galaxy, cosmic background radiation, and so forth), what is the probability of God’s existence?
We must formulate our questions in a way that they can be answered, and in both cases—physics and theology—the questions are: assuming there is a Higgs boson, how well do the collision data fit its existence? Or: assuming there is a God, how well does the amazing universe that envelops us fit the fact of His existence?
In mathematical terms we can also ask: what is the probability of the universe’s existence assuming God exists? That, of course, is a trivial question whose answer is 100%. That is not the question that interests us. The question that interests us is the reverse: what is the probability of God’s existence given the universe as we understand it?
Up to here, he is pointing out a very important nuance that’s easy to miss. The question “given that I see a world as it is, what is the chance that God exists?” is quite different from the reverse: “given that God exists, what is the chance the world would be as it is?” These are two different questions, since they are conditional probabilities with the variables reversed. However, he errs on the number. He claims the answer to the second question is 1 (trivial), but that’s not correct (at least if we have no further knowledge about God). God could have decided to create a different world or not to create a world at all; in that case God would exist but not this world—or any world. Still, the distinction itself is, of course, correct. So what do we do with this?
Now he explains the connection to the physico-theological argument:
The classic “return to religion” argument says: Look how beautiful the butterfly is; look how complex the human being is—could such things have arisen by chance? Of course not! And behold a proof of God’s existence. In other words, given such a wondrous universe, one must posit a God who created it.
This argument relies, of course, on a common statistical mistake—that the probability that, given the butterfly, God exists equals the probability that, given God, the result is a wondrous butterfly. The latter probability is 100%, but the former is certainly not.
This is truly bizarre. First, no one claims that the physico-theological argument yields probability 1. There is a very small chance that the world arose by chance, and therefore there is no necessity that God exists. But beyond that, the truth is exactly the opposite: the physico-theological argument asks the first question—given the butterfly, what is the chance that God exists? And as we saw, the reverse question (given that God exists, what is the chance the butterfly would be as it is?) is ill-defined (it’s not a statistical question at all; the world that would come to be is the world God decides upon—there are no random processes there). The physico-theological argument, in its standard formulation, does not tie these two questions together. It merely says that the chance that something complex arose by accident is negligible, and therefore it is reasonable that it did not arise by accident. What’s wrong with that argument? What exactly is it “reversing”?
He continues:
Bayes’s theorem provides the link between the two probabilities. The probability that the butterfly is beautiful given God must be multiplied by the probability that God exists at all, since if there is no God there’s no point in any probabilistic discussion. The probability that the universe’s existence points to God’s existence equals the probability that, given God, the universe exists—but only on condition that God actually exists.
The solution he proposes is that the “religious persuader” failed to take into account the prior probability that God exists. As we saw above in Bayes’s formula, reversing the direction of conditional probabilities depends on the unconditional probabilities of the two events. That’s certainly true, but it has nothing to do with the “religious persuader’s” argument.
I’ll now try to employ the principle of charity (see column 440) to propose a plausible reading of what Gross and his colleagues might have meant—i.e., the connection of the argument to conditional probability and Bayes’s theorem. In the course of the analysis I’ll clarify why, even so, they are not correct.
First formulation
Let me introduce two propositions: A = God exists. B = a complex world exists. Now let’s ask what probabilities, conditional or not, we can assume for these events. The unconditional probability that God exists, P(A), is of course unknown to us. The probability that a complex world exists is P(B) = 1. As for the conditional probabilities, that’s trickier. We seek P(A|B), the conditional probability that God exists given that a complex world exists. We saw above that, contrary to Gross’s claim, the reverse conditional probability P(B|A) is unknown and not really well-defined. So what do we do?
Note that we do know another conditional probability that is also relevant. We know that without God, the chance that a complex world exists (i.e., that it arises randomly on its own) is very small. This is the assumption of the physico-theological argument. Thus: P(B|¬A) = x, where x is very small.
But for our discussion what matters is the reverse probability: P(¬A|B). That is, the chance that there is no God given the existence of our complex world. Why is this useful here? Because the complementary probability follows from it very simply: P(A|B) = 1 − P(¬A|B). If so, let’s try to compute the first probability using Bayes’s theorem. From above we have:
P(B|¬A)·P(¬A) = P(¬A|B)·P(B)
Substitute our data to get:
P(¬A|B) = x·P(¬A)
Remember that every probability (conditional or not) lies between 0 and 1. That means the product on the right-hand side is very small. Hence, the conditional probability that God does not exist given that our complex world exists is very small. Therefore, the conditional probability that God does exist under these circumstances is very large (almost 1):
P(A|B) = 1 − x·P(¬A)
Q.E.D.
So there is a connection here to conditional probability and Bayes’s theorem, and even to reversing variables in conditional probabilities. But ultimately the physico-theological argument does work, and the unconditional probabilities don’t play a major role in this analysis. Therefore I’ll suggest another formulation in which all those components do play a part.
Second formulation
From another angle, we can use the formula for total probability. This is just a further development of Bayes’s theorem. The probability of B (the world’s existence) can be written as the sum of two cases: assuming ¬A and assuming A (by the Law of the Excluded Middle, there is no third option). Thus I write it as a sum of two possibilities:
P(B) = P(B|¬A)·P(¬A) + P(B|A)·P(A)
If we substitute this into Bayes’s theorem, we obtain the formula for total probability (in the case of only two possibilities):
P(¬A|B) = P(B|¬A)·P(¬A) / { P(B|¬A)·P(¬A) + P(B|A)·P(A) }
Let’s try to estimate this probability. It obviously depends on the unconditional probability of God’s existence or non-existence (clearly P(A) + P(¬A) = 1). If we assume that the unconditional probability of God’s existence is very small (as Gross claimed in Part B of our conversation), you’ll immediately see that on the right-hand side there’s a contest in the denominator between two small factors, P(A) and x, and a small factor in the numerator, x. The result depends on the ratio between these two; and if the probability of God’s existence is much smaller than the probability of the world’s random arising (as Gross claimed), then the conditional probability of His existence can also be small—that is, the conditional probability of His non-existence is large. If the probability of His existence is large (as I claimed), the conditional probability naturally comes out large as well.
Here there is a very important step in the discussion. I told Gross that his assumption—that the probability of God’s existence is much smaller than the probability of the world’s random arising—is a begged question. He assumes there’s no chance that God exists, so it’s no wonder he concludes that the proof is poor and the conditional probability of His existence is small. Of course I too beg the question when I say that the probability of His existence is large. What can we do to obtain a meaningful argument that does not beg the question?[3] I suggested to him a simple model that assumes both probabilities are 1/2. Essentially, we assume we have no a priori knowledge regarding God, and we ask whether the total-probability formula can move us toward one of the two outcomes (that He exists or does not). This seems a very reasonable model to test the quality and implications of the argument.
So now we need to substitute into the last equation: P(A) = P(¬A) = 1/2. This factor cancels in numerator and denominator. We get:
P(¬A|B) = P(B|¬A) / { P(B|¬A) + P(B|A) } = 1 / { 1 + P(B|A) / P(B|¬A) }
Recall now that P(B|¬A) is tiny, and that we have no information about the value of P(B|A). Clearly, the probability that the world exists is higher when God exists (whatever His nature) than when He does not. Therefore, the fraction on the far right is a very large number, and the result for the conditional probability that God does not exist, given the existence of our world, is likely tiny. That is the physico-theological argument. Q.E.D. Incidentally, in Gross’s view P(B|A) = 1, in which case this proof would be perfect. As noted, that assumption lacks basis, but there is some logic to assuming it when we search for an alternative to random emergence: the alternative is that there is an agent who wanted precisely this world and therefore created it as it is. If that’s the assumption, then indeed the probability is not merely much larger than the probability of emergence without God—it’s actually 1.
Either way, this analysis truly integrates conditional probabilities and the importance of the difference between them, and its result depends on the unconditional probabilities. It therefore seems plausible that the Five Musketeers had this claim in mind. Yet if one does not beg the question regarding the unconditional probability of God’s existence—as they likely did—the conclusion of the calculation is that the Bayesian formulation of the physico-theological argument safely leads us to the conclusion that God does indeed exist. The Bayesian proof they mocked is excellent. Such an argument will, of course, fail to prove God’s existence to someone who assumes in advance there is no chance He exists. But for one who has not formed a firm stance and remains open to both possibilities, this argument is an excellent proof. That is all one can reasonably expect from a logical argument.
A methodological conclusion
We saw above that Gross and his colleagues mocked attempts to prove God’s existence in a Bayesian manner and claimed that such a proof ignores the difference between the two types of conditional probabilities involved in the discussion. Surprisingly, it turns out they were wrong. For someone who does not come with a fixed, firm stance, this argument does indeed lead him to the conclusion that God exists. Needless to say, every argument rests on premises, and one who does not accept them will not be compelled to adopt the conclusion.[4] That cannot be considered a flaw in a logical argument. A probabilistic argument is supposed to increase the likelihood that the conclusion is true for someone who is open to that possibility, and that is exactly what happens here. If this isn’t an excellent argument, I don’t know what is. There is no ignoring of conditional probabilities here, and Bayes’s theorem is used entirely correctly.
In the previous column I dealt a bit with the disputes between Beit Hillel and Beit Shammai, and with the heavenly voice’s ruling that the halakha follows Beit Hillel. I mentioned R. Yosef Karo’s explanation in his Rules of the Talmud that the halakha was set like Beit Hillel because they were closer to the truth, even though Beit Shammai were sharper and more incisive. The reason is that Beit Hillel’s methodology was to present Beit Shammai’s words before their own, to weigh the opposing position, and only then to form their stance. Such a methodology can improve one’s chances of reaching the truth even if he is less gifted than his counterpart. Those who entrench themselves in a group that hears only one voice and does not seriously weigh counter-arguments are prone to reach false conclusions, even if they are brilliant people.
Gross’s description of the physicists’ meeting aroused precisely these feelings in me. I suspect it was a group whose members all echoed the same way of thinking and were attuned to the same type of arguments, while dismissing out of hand anyone who argued otherwise. In such a situation, what engineers call “positive feedback” (a destructive phenomenon) is created; and therefore, even if they are brilliant people and excellent scientists, they are liable to arrive at mistaken conclusions. If you label other views as “arguments of religious propagandists” and reject them outright because of that label without seriously examining the considerations (as happened at least once in our conversation), then even a group of brilliant people can reach the absurd conclusions we saw here. Note that in this case it was a simple mistake, and I assume that without the bias they wouldn’t have made it. Let that teach you how important it is to hear opposing opinions and weigh them seriously.
A word to readers of Haaretz, readers of Makor Rishon and Besheva, and all the victims of Google’s algorithms who are fed day and night with information continually tailored to their views and inclinations and who are always given positive feedback. It may be pleasant, but it is truly destructive (I discussed this in column 335 and also in columns 450 – 451). You have been warned!
[1] In the books mentioned I explained that the alternative is that such a law would be logically necessary—i.e., it would be a product of mathematics and logic alone, with no need for observations. If that were to happen, science would become a branch of mathematics and the distinction between empirical science and mathematics would vanish. As far as I know, there is no sane scientist today who seriously believes this. Therefore I ignore this possibility here.
[2] If the two events are independent (i.e., the conditional probability of an event equals its unconditional probability), then both calculations just give the product P(A)·P(B).
[3] In column 461 I discussed the relationship between Bayesian entailment and material implication, and between statistics and logic regarding causality and begging the question.
[4] For example, here we assumed that the probability of the world’s random emergence is very small. That is the basic premise of the physico-theological argument, and there are quite a few atheist challenges to it (which I discussed extensively in the sources cited). But here I am not dealing with the argument as such, only with its Bayesian-probabilistic structure, which is the focus of Gross and his colleagues’ attack. As we have seen, this attack surely fails.
A Sisian formulation of the following proof for the existence of God is detailed in a neat and meticulous manner in Richard Swinburne's book On the Existence of God.
Only in a completely different way with completely different assumptions.
As a madman he will explain why:
p(A) is high, because God by definition is the simplest cause so according to Ockham's razor is the best hypothesis higher than any other P(~A). And he will also precede why for him Ockham's razor is a criterion for choosing between hypotheses.
To get a high P(B/A) he will start to perform a long analysis why by the very definition of God then it is best to assume that the chance of a world also being created is quite high.
I think he will also show why for many events P(B/~A) will be lower than P(B/A). (Compared to the problem of evil where it is a little different and he will refine it).
P(B) – I assume he accepts that it is one, although I don't remember.
Then I assume that all that remains is to place it in the formula that the Rabbi wrote above….
Only all the assumptions are completely different from the path of this column.
A technical note to the website's programmers: presenting formulas like mathematical formulas in latex would be much more readable and clear. On my cell phone right now, it's mixed in with the Hebrew and very difficult to read.
“Additional information generally increases the probability of any event (and therefore improves my ability to predict it in advance).”
This sentence needs to be corrected, because of course additional information does not increase the probability of any event but rather increases it for some events and decreases it for some. This can also be described using entropy.
Of course. I'll fix it.
“He is indeed wrong about the number here. He claims that the answer to the second question is 1 (trivial), but this is not true (at least if we have no further knowledge about God). God could have decided to create another world or not to create a world at all, and then there would have been God but there would have been no world as we know it or no world at all.”
I think you are wrong here, the world is already as it is now with probability 1 (if we do not doubt the existence of the world), therefore the additional condition is not important, it remains 1.
It is like saying that I rolled a die and got a five, what is the probability that I got (on that specific roll) a 5. If we assume that there is a God/there is no God/a giraffe jumped on me, this has no meaning, I already rolled and got a five, therefore in all possibilities the answer will be 1.
What I think you are referring to is what is the probability of accepting our given world given that there is a God, which is a completely different question and I think the answer is that the probability is negligible.
The last question you formulated is the question I was referring to and this is the question he asked. It is clear that the probability of our world is 1 after it exists. That is not the discussion. By the way, in my opinion it is not true that the probability is negligible, since it is not a random event. There are even sides to saying that the probability is 1 (because if he created such a world then it is probably the world he wants most or the world that is derived from his goals, and in any case the probability that he will create such a world is 1. That is what I meant, that he is wrong if we do not have additional information.
Reading his words again, I think he meant what I wrote at the beginning, I agree with you that this is not the relevant question, but I'm pretty sure that's what he meant.
Regarding the question: “Given that there is a God, what is the probability that the world will be as it is now” I said that I think the answer is negligible, because of human choice that could create countless different possibilities.
All of the above is less relevant to the body of your arguments.
On the merits, I think that the physico-theological evidence is a strong evidence, but I feel very uncomfortable with using Bayes' rule because talking about the probability of God's existence is meaningless, I feel like meaningless words.
In my opinion, saying whether this number is low or high is funny, or whether there is a God or not, the question is what is the probability of his creation?
Therefore, in my opinion, this probability is either zero or one, and then in my understanding, Bayes' rule cannot be used because there is division by zero.
I think the probability part should stop at the fact that x is very low, now everyone will use their own assumptions to decide whether it follows from this that there is a God or not.
And on refining the evidence for the existence of God according to the Bayes formula, King David said: "In the Bayes formula of God we walk with feeling" 🙂
With blessings, Matti Ma'atuk
There are two problems with this argument,
First, you did not define God, it sounds from your words that it is a primary factor due to the assumption of the impossibility of infinite regression. (Contrary to the version that there is a “rescuing” factor that uses the principle of sufficient reason).
But if so, your claim that the “unified field theory” would be revealed as Einstein's passion, we would still require an explanation for this law. The reason for this you wrote in comment 1: that ”the alternative is that this law would be logically necessary”.
But this is really strange, because your argument here would not necessarily lead to the God of the necessity of reality. But at most to an initial brute fact. If so, the unified field theory would provide a very good answer to this and we would not need an additional factor.
A similar idea comes from the opposite idea, clearly if there is no infinite regression then there is some initial cause(s)…. But how exactly does this advance you towards the diastatic God and not just a slightly different Pinozist creature from the familiar??
But you will constantly need an additional assumption that is the heart of the physico-theological argument, that without God the chance that a world will exist is very small.
But clearly this is the desired assumption, because if from your point of view a Pinozist primary cause can well fulfill your requirements with the word “God” of the previous sentence, then it is quite a tautology and clearly that without some initial cause the chance that a world will exist is very small. So let's assume there is from nothing… and we won't need many probability games because this is simply the conclusion of the cosmological view.
But here you are already using the fact that the God you are talking about is in the deist style, without any justification for this “small” assumption, and if so, then you assume the desired one that without a (deist) God the chance that a world will exist is very small. And then you are surprised that if a world exists, as long as you do not assume that there is no possibility of a deist God, he is probably the plausible hypothesis….
(Besides, even if you explain why only a deist God could serve as an explanation for the world, then you will also have to explain where he came from and what the explanation for his existence is, and if you say that it is better to stop there, why don't we stop with him regarding the world that we have already seen as a possible hypothesis for brute fact.)
But in fact, every atheist accepts the assumption that there could be some kind of unified field theory of being in the background, only he disputes the assumption that God, under your assumption that I quoted below, must be deist…
Therefore, in my opinion, the rabbi should write a follow-up column 🙂 to deal precisely with these hidden assumptions and give readers a full argument from beginning to end. Otherwise, it will just remain a bunch of empty words 🙂 Or he will answer in response.
“We know that without God, the chance that a complex world will exist (that is, that it will be created randomly by itself) is very small. This is the assumption of the physico-theological view. If so: P(B/~A)=x, where x is very small. “
This column has already been written. This is the third conversation of The First Presupposition and God Plays Dice, and there I answered these claims in detail. I wrote here (and clarified in note 4) that my concern is not to prove the existence of God but to clarify the position of Bayesianism on the issue.
Your Honor surely knows that sometimes columns have been written in series and parts, sometimes also following responses and requests from surfers. We have already noted that there is a queue for columns…
This could be the third so that the second one will not be interrupted soon, between Sukkot and Yom Kippur, in parallel with the construction of the physical foundations.
Two comments on this argument:
1. I think that even in the second version, you didn't really use absolute probabilities. According to Bayes' formula, the ratio between the probabilities for the existence or non-existence of God given the world (B) is:
P(A/B)/P(~A/B) = P(A)/P(~A) * P(B/A)/P(B/~A)
Under the assumption P(B/A)>P(B/~A), we immediately get
P(A/B)/P(~A/B) > P(A)/P(~A)
That is, if we assume that the world is more likely when God exists, then when we see the world the probability of God's existence increases. It has nothing to do with absolute probability (except for the assumption that it is not 1).
2. The assumption P(B/A)>P(B/~A) needs an explanation. If we know nothing about God, it seems difficult to justify it.
1. The expression you wrote at the beginning is the ratio of unconditional probabilities. These are the probabilities of the pair of events: P(A^B) and P(~A^B).
2. Here too I disagree. If there is a God, this in itself, without further knowledge about him, increases the chance of the existence of a world (because at least it is possible that he created it). And it is clear that this is even greater assuming that it is already known that the world exists. This indicates that God is probably something that manages to create it with reasonable probability.
1. I didn't understand the response. Although
P(A/B)/P(~A/B) = P(A^B)/P(~A^B)
But this only shows that the argument does not require absolute probability. Of course, any conditional probability can be replaced by a ratio between absolute probabilities (according to Bayes' formula), but this does not mean that absolute probabilities are essential to the argument.
2. There is still an assumption here that God wants to create a world. For example, if the opposite is true - say, if it is known that God hates worlds - then the fact that God exists reduces the chance of a world's existence.
In any case, the same argument works if B is not a "world" but a "butterfly" (as in the original example), or for example "suffering". Does the fact that suffering exists increase or decrease the risk of God's existence?
1. I wrote that your first expression is not a ratio between conditional probabilities but between intersection probabilities. But that is not important to the discussion because it does depend on the ratio between the absolute probabilities, and therefore it is not true that there is no dependence on the absolute probabilities.
2. As I wrote, after the world exists, it becomes even stronger. It is much more likely that there is a God who wanted to create it than that it was created by itself.
Okay, after thinking about it quite a bit, I think the Bayesian analysis is wrong.
You are referring to this formula:
P(A^B) = P(B/A)*P(A) = P(A/B)*P(B)
This formula holds by definition only if the probability of each event A, B is greater than zero, otherwise there is a division by zero and the whole formula is wrong.
Now, you attribute probabilities to A and B, which in itself is a bit strange since you are referring to A and B as claims, A that there is a God, B that there is a complex world, but probability does not deal with claims but with events and therefore it is not appropriate to talk about the probability of claims at all. Therefore, here the whole analysis is no longer in the realm of probabilities.
Moreover, as far as the existence of a complex world is concerned, at least we know that there is a complex world, so the probability (although not well defined) is at least not zero.
But as far as the existence of God is concerned, what does the probability of the existence of God mean? The existence of God is a claim that has a true or false value. If the value is false, that is, zero, then the entire analysis is wrong, since there is division by zero.
If we still try to define it in the realm of probability, the only way out I see is to ask what the probability of God's creation is. This is a question that we have no understanding of and I would not base any proof on its analysis, especially since the physico-theological proof refers to God as an object that we have no understanding of and therefore does not require a reason, let alone that there is no meaning in talking about the probability of his creation or his existence, however it is defined.
I think the physico-theological evidence is good, but it should be argued that the probability of the creation of the world is very low by chance (and this is where the probabilistic analysis stops, since this is the only part that talks about events). Therefore, if a person thinks that the existence of God is a likely possibility (likely not probable), then he should prefer this possibility.
I didn't understand the difference between claims and events. That there is a God is an event. And so is that there is a world.
Clearly the evidence is based on the assumption that a complex world without God is implausible. I explained that. See my note 4.
It's as if you didn't read the response at all.
You clearly said that the evidence is based on the assumption that a complex world without God is implausible, what I'm saying is that's where the probabilistic calculation stops.
If you continue with the Bayesian argument you're making a mathematical proof that can divide by zero, such a proof can prove that 1=2 so it's not worth much.
I've read and read. The division by zero argument is meaningless. For the sake of discussion, do you agree that the calculation (and not the proof) is valid assuming there is no chance of absolute zero here? For my purposes, that's enough.
There are inaccuracies in your use of Bayes:
P(B/~A)*P(~A) = P(~A/B)*P(B)
In the formula here, P(B) is not 1. P(B) is the a priori probability of the existence of the world and it is not 1. This is confused here with the fact that the world actually exists, but it is not related to a priori probability. It is clear that the assumption that the world must exist, together with the fact that the probability of this event is low given that there is no God, will lead to the fact that there is a high probability of the existence of God. But there is the desired assumption here. And it is clear that there is a problem here because what was entered in the second formulation was not entered – here, what was entered in the second formulation – the a priori probability of the existence of God.
And in the second formulation you write:
“By the way, according to Gross, the chance P(B/A) = 1, and then in general this proof is perfect”. The proof is still incomplete because if we assume P(B/~A) is equal to 1 in 1000 then we get:
1 / { 1 + P(B/A)/P(B/~A) } = 11001
This is addressed by the second formulation, which does not really assume that the probability is 1.
I did not understand your comment about the second formulation. This small chance is the chance of a world existing assuming that A does not exist. Therefore, it is clear that there is a God.
1. You wrote that Elam assumes that P(B/A) is 1. But you assume that P(B) is 1. That's something different. Why do you assume that?
2. Regarding the second formulation, you wrote that if P(B/A) = 1 then the proof is perfect. What do you mean by perfect? If you mean that the probability is 1 for the existence of God, then that's not true. What makes the chance almost certain is the assumption that P(B/~A) is very small.
1. I wrote. This is because I know that the world exists. It is also possible to formulate that if it exists then it probably had to exist, and this necessity caused it to be created (this is what I suggested regarding Elam's assumption that, given God, the chance of a world's existence is 1, because since the world exists then God is probably a being who wants to exist in such a world).
But as I explained, the second formulation comes to bypass exactly this point. There I no longer assume that it is 1, and reaches the same result.
Someone above suggested that Elam's intention was to say that if the world exists then the chance P(B)=1, and therefore also the conditional chance P(B/A) = 1. This is of course formally correct but it is clear that he did not mean this, otherwise his talk about conditional probabilities would have no meaning.
2. I completely agree. That is exactly what I meant. I didn't mean to say that the probability is 1 (if we put it in the formula, we'll see that immediately), but only that it's even greater than the value I arrive at, and no further assumptions need to be made. It should have been written here: ‘more perfect’ (instead of ‘perfect’).
A pleasure
I listened to the 2 conversations with Eilam.
His lack of understanding of basic philosophy was very noticeable.
As someone who also read Dawkins with a completely open mind and even sympathy, I noticed that he had the same problem.
Professors of physics, biology or anything else, must know where the place is where they don't really understand, because it is embarrassing and a sin against the truth.
I loved the ending – Thanks to the fact that I learned and carefully read the opinions opposite to mine, I discovered an interesting world called Judaism. After some informed thinking, I realized that not everything is unicorns and spaghetti monsters…
I enjoyed the column and the conversations.
The main problem of atheists - and I can speak from a personal perspective as such in the past - they are not willing to accept the possibility that there is a God (because for them it forces religiosity) and therefore they are desperately looking for an explanation for this phenomenon of ‘belief’ in Gods.
Well done.
"We know that without God the chance of a complex world (i.e., that it would randomly come into existence) is very small" – utter nonsense. Only a rabbi could make such a claim... Most of the text here is verbal masturbation...
Ilan
You summed up the Rabbi's ramblings so beautifully.
“Emotion and mysticism are non-scientific indications of the factual existence of God.”
I understand your opinion to be that moral emotion is actually an indication, or even proof, of the existence of God.
The term "moral emotion" does not exist for me. Do you mean moral intuition? That's something else entirely. But even if it were an emotion, it's still not a scientific path to God.
I don't know if you respond to comments written long after the publication, but I'll try anyway.
Although the purpose of the column is only to show the relevance of using Bayes in the context of God, I would love to hear your response to the question asked above (in a rather bad way) by Ayalon: Why is the probability of a complex world without God small, that is, why do you assume that x is small?
Doesn't the theory of evolution show that this probability is not as small as one might think?
I have often explained that evolution is not an explanation for anything for several reasons: 1. It only begins when life already exists (protein chains). The question is how these were created. 2. The laws of nature that enable evolution are very unique, and the question is who created them (fine tuning). Abiogenesis.
Either way, even if I am wrong (and I am), the claim of Gross and his colleagues is a self-contradictory nonsense.
I agree with claim 2.
Regarding 1. When I look at Dawkins' description in his book The Vertical Garden of the "replicators" (which are a more general case of protein chains) and given billions of years of existence, I get the impression that the probability of replicators forming and then the evolution of life is not as small as one might think (even he does not discuss there the question of how likely it is to happen, but only shows that it is possible).
I would love to hear what you think or for references to your writings if you have discussed this question in the past.
Regarding abiogenesis, there is a basic calculation by a well-known Dutch biologist that gives an impossible barrier to accidental formation. I brought this up in my book God Plays Dice.
But for our purposes here, argument 2 is sufficient.