Between Intellectual Optimism and Pessimism: B. Kant’s Solution (Column 495)
With God’s help
Disclaimer: This post was translated from Hebrew using AI (ChatGPT 5 Thinking), so there may be inaccuracies or nuances lost. If something seems unclear, please refer to the Hebrew original or contact us for clarification.
In the previous column I described what I call “the epistemic rupture.” In brief, I explained that we have no justification for our most fundamental modes of thought and cognition regarding the world. I noted that despite how fundamental this is, throughout the history of philosophy no serious answer has been offered to this problem. I will now discuss the solution proposed by Kant, who, as noted, was the only one in history who at least tried to propose a systematic solution that seemingly holds water.
Kant’s Solution
We saw in the previous column that Kant offered a renewed and general formulation of the problems Hume raised against empiricism, gathering them all under the problem of the synthetic a priori. Kant then proceeded to solve them. He did this by what he himself called the “second Copernican revolution.” Copernicus reversed our point of view about the universe and argued that it is not the earth that stands at the center with everything revolving around it, but the sun at the center with everything revolving around it,[1] and by inverting the point of view he solved many problems and complications in the existing cosmological description. Kant suggested that this is how we should proceed with respect to the epistemic rupture as well.
The prevailing picture for us is that facts exist in the objective world itself, and we, as scientists, stand before them and try to know them. In this pre-Kantian picture, there are two images that stand opposite one another: the world as it is in itself, which science deals with; and opposite it stands science, which consists of our claims about the world. Science is in our cognition, and it tries to hit upon what occurs in the world itself. Kant’s and Hume’s questions deal with the fit between these two planes: our knowledge and cognition (= science) versus the world as it is in itself (= the facts). But Kant claims that this picture is mistaken and that it is precisely what leads us to the epistemic rupture. His claim is that the facts and events with which science deals are not located in the world-in-itself but are found only within us too—this is his “second Copernican revolution.”
Science does not concern itself with the world as it is in itself, but with its images that reside in our cognition. Every phenomenon we try to understand is a phenomenon we have experienced in our own cognition, and as such it should not be seen as a bare fact from the objective world. These images in our cognition are constructed in a way that necessarily depends on our cognitive faculties. We shape and process them and insert them into our conceptual and sensory-cognitive frameworks, and therefore it is clear that they contain components that are not objective. Thus, the “world” we engage with is not the world of things-in-themselves (the noumenon) but the world of things as they appear to us (the phenomenon). Epistemology, then, does not concern itself with the fit between our thinking and the world-in-itself, but between an image that is in our cognition and our cognition and thinking themselves. This is no longer such a wondrous fit, since it is a fit between two things that are bound up with human cognition, and not between two independent images. The epistemic rupture stems from our assuming a fit between two independent images. But in light of his Copernican revolution, Kant claims, it is no wonder that we can determine things about the “world” by thought alone (i.e., that the laws of nature are a priori).
To complete the picture, I will add that Kant explains that the way we arrive from observations to synthetic-a-priori claims is by means of what he called “transcendental arguments.” A transcendental argument in effect derives, a priori, various constraints on the image of the world that will be experienced, and it does so from reflecting on the form of our thinking and our conceptual world. We saw that our conceptual world and the principles of our thinking dictate very basic elements within the image of the world we will see, and therefore it is no wonder that we can know them even before we have conducted observations. The details we of course learn from observation, but there is no need for observations of the world to know the constraints of our own perception. For example, a person with red cellophane over his eyes can know a priori that every object he sees will be red. He need not conduct observations to determine this, since it is the result of the influence of the cognitive system and not of facts in the objective world as it is in itself. This is the reason we can know certain things about the world a priori. Thus, for instance, space and time are categories that are found only within us, yet our entire scientific image of the world takes place within the conceptual framework of space and time. The facts that science explains are already tinted by the colors of space-time, and therefore it is no wonder that the laws of science speak about certain dependencies of physics on space and time, for that is how our cognition is built. So too with causality. Our cognition grasps things through the dependence of cause and effect, and it is no wonder that one can determine a priori that every event has a cause. This is not a claim about reality as it is in itself (the noumenon), but our cognition imposing that principle upon reality as it is apprehended by us (the phenomenon).
Problems with the Kantian Solution
I have written more than once that the Kantian solution is indeed brilliant, but on closer inspection it is clear that it does not satisfy. Let us take as an example Newton’s second law, which states a direct proportionality between force and acceleration (force equals the mass of a body times the acceleration it produces). According to Kant, this law is a result of the constraints of our cognition and not a property of the world as it is in itself. Let us suppose, for the sake of discussion, that in reality itself a body’s acceleration is not proportional to the force (as the second law states) but to the square of the force. Why, Kant claims, are we unable to notice this? Is there any reason our cognition cannot discern the motion of such a body? In other words, what actually causes us always, in every event we observe, to see a direct proportionality between force and acceleration? Let us be more concrete. Suppose there is a body whose mass is 2 kg, and a force of 6 newtons acts upon it. According to Newton’s second law, the acceleration of such a body would be 3 m/s2 (force divided by mass). Are there in reality cases where the acceleration is different and we simply do not notice them? Why should we not notice them? If Kant wishes to claim that we only notice bodies that move in accordance with Newton’s second law, he must explain what prevents us from seeing that very acceleration of that very body in cases where a different force acts upon it. After all, we could notice another body moving with such acceleration, or even the same body upon which a different force acts that produces such acceleration. Does a force of a different magnitude simply block our eyes, and thus we miss all the events in which the second law does not obtain? This is a bizarre assumption. The picture Kant proposed has no better justification than the picture it came to replace. It is no less problematic than the ordinary picture (the one before the second Copernican revolution).
So far I have dealt with Newton’s second law. What about Newton’s law of gravitation? In the world itself (not in our cognition), are there massive bodies that stand suspended in the air and do not fall, or that fall to the ground with an acceleration different from the one familiar to us? If so, what prevents us from seeing this? So too with all the other laws of nature. The cognitive constraints of which Kant spoke surely exist (we cannot see wavelengths outside the visible range, or hear sounds beyond our hearing range), but I see no logic in the assumption that the constraints of our thinking are necessarily translated into constraints of our cognition (that what we cannot think we also cannot see). The fact that our thinking reaches certain conclusions about the laws of nature (using synthetic-a-priori principles like causality and induction) cannot be explained by cognitive constraints, since our cognition is not limited by the same limitations as our thinking. It is therefore very odd to accept the Kantian thesis as an explanation for the synthetic-a-priori problem. The idea is brilliant, but it seems it does not hold water.
Until now I have dealt with the laws of nature, but similar claims can be raised regarding meta-scientific principles. If the law of induction is not true, then in the world itself there are events that happen at certain times and will not recur at other times or places. So why do we not see them? If there is a law we have observed consistently and suddenly it ceases to hold, we look for explanations for this—and usually find them. It does not happen that a mode of behavior that held until now simply stops being so for no reason. The same holds for the principle of causality. Somehow we always find a cause for what happens. Is this merely coincidental—perhaps because anything that occurs without a cause simply does not reach our cognition? What prevents us from seeing it?
The truth must be told: specifically with respect to meta-scientific principles like causality and induction, one could perhaps answer that this is a constraint of thought and not of cognition. We assume that there is always a cause, and so we always search for and find something on which we can hang matters. The same holds for induction (when it does not hold we ascribe it to some cause, because we assume it must hold). I think if you reflect a bit you will see that even this is very implausible, but for our purposes here the difficulties arising from the laws of nature suffice. The difficulties regarding the meta-scientific principles are merely an additional, correct but not necessary, reinforcement of my argument.
It is important to note that even if Kant’s proposal does not truly provide a reasonable answer to the epistemic rupture, it is still clear that he is right in asserting that there is a gap between the world as it is in itself (the noumenon) and the world as it appears in our cognition (the phenomenon). It is entirely clear that science deals with the phenomenal and not with the noumenal, for the facts it explains are the facts in our cognition. There is no doubt that the facts in our cognition are colored by hues that cognition dictates to them. This is certainly true, yet we still must seek a reasonable solution to the epistemic rupture.
Lev Shestov’s Difficulties
Let us now return to our acquaintance Lev Shestov. On p. 176 of the book, Zeitlin reports that the various interpretations of Kant’s doctrine offered solutions to many of its difficulties, but in his view there are two difficulties for which you will not find a solution in any interpretation (he surveys the various interpretations and shows that they do not answer them).
The first difficulty concerns the relation between the noumenon and the phenomenon. Which begets which? How can we even speak about the noumenon if it is not accessible to our cognition? How can we even know that it exists? The common assumption among Kant’s interpreters is that the noumenon is the cause of the phenomenon, i.e., the thing-in-itself gives rise to its image that appears in our cognition. But to this Solomon Maimon’s objection presses: causality as such belongs entirely to the phenomenal world, and it cannot be applied to the very genesis of that world. It is like saying that the principle of causality exists because of the principle of causality. In other words, in the noumenal world there are no causal relations, for it does not obey the rules and laws that are within our cognition. Therefore one cannot say that the noumenon is a cause of the phenomenon. The objective world simply does not belong to the conceptual framework of phenomena and cannot be described in its terms.
The second difficulty is: whence were the fundamental principles of cognition and thought imprinted in us—the ones that generate the transcendental framework from which we derive synthetic-a-priori claims? If they were imprinted in us by the phenomenon, then it is hard to say that the phenomenon is constituted by them, for they are the ones that constitute it. Kant explained that we attend to the world and create the phenomenon because of our cognitive faculties. But it now turns out that they themselves are produced by the phenomenon—that is, they are its products.
Zeitlin then goes through Kant’s major interpreters and shows that none of them solved these difficulties; I will spare you that here. I will now argue that these two difficulties arise from a common misunderstanding regarding the Kantian distinction between phenomenon and noumenon, and that in fact they have a very simple solution.
Correcting a Mistake Regarding the Kantian Distinction[2]
It is commonly thought that Kant claims we are unable to grasp the world of things-in-themselves because we are trapped within our cognitive faculties. This claim assumes that the Kantian distinction reflects a human limitation. Because of our limitations we cannot grasp the world as it is in itself. God, for example, is exempt from this, for as an omnipotent being He has no limitations, and therefore for Him there should be no problem in grasping the thing-in-itself. But to my mind this is a very basic mistake in understanding the matter.
Our inability to say things about the noumenon is not the result of our limitation. More than that, it is not even correct to say that we cannot grasp the noumenon. We certainly can—and the result of that grasp is precisely the phenomenon. Think of a red table standing before you. The common interpretation is that the table as it is in itself does not necessarily have the color red. The red is in our cognition, while the table itself perhaps has a different color or no color at all. But that is not right. The table has properties (such as its crystalline structure) that produce in whoever observes it a red appearance. The red color is a description of the table’s crystalline structure (or the dispersion of light from its crystalline structure) in our cognitive-visual language. Someone else who observes the table, but whose eyes are wired to the auditory center of the brain, will hear the table rather than see it. Another might see it in green, or sense its crystalline structure as a taste or as a sense unfamiliar to us.
In other words, one could say that the table as such has no color at all. But that is not because we cannot grasp its color; rather, by definition color is the image that arises in our visual cognition when we attend to the table. Color does not exist in the world as such but only in our cognition. Consider the famous question: when a tree falls in a forest and there is no one there to listen, does it make a sound? The answer is, of course, negative. Such a tree makes no sound. It displaces air and creates in it an acoustic pressure wave. But “sound” arises only when such a pressure wave strikes the eardrum of some ear. In that case a sensation of sound is created in the cognition of the bearer of the ear. In the world as such there are no sounds—there are acoustic waves. Sound, like color, does not exist in the world itself but only in our cognition. The tree does not emit sound; it produces a physical phenomenon that our ear presents as sound (another creature might present it as music, or as some other sense).
Therefore there is no meaning to speaking of the color of the table-in-itself or of sound in the world-as-it-is-in-itself. The table-in-itself has properties such as a crystalline structure and the like, but in our cognition those properties are expressed within our system of concepts and forms of apprehension (color, sound, shapes, etc.). By definition, perception relates to the thing-in-itself. But to perceive a thing means to insert it into our conceptual and cognitive framework. That is the meaning of apprehending the noumenon. Therefore we certainly can and do apprehend the table-in-itself. The apprehension of the table means creating a representation of it in our cognition. There is no perception without a perceiver, and thus by definition the result of perception is an image in the perceiver’s cognition; that image is shaped by his system of concepts and forms of apprehension.
If so, talk of a limitation that prevents us from apprehending the thing-in-itself is a misunderstanding. There is no such limitation, and we certainly apprehend the thing-in-itself. The product of that apprehension is the phenomenon that arises in our cognition. This is not a limitation, for every apprehension is defined by the faculties of the perceiver and is conducted within their framework. Thus every creature apprehends things outside itself. In apprehension we translate the thing or event we observe into our internal language. Were I not timid, I would say that in principle this is true even with respect to God Himself.
In any case, we can now see that in light of the correction I have proposed to the meaning of Kant’s distinction, Shestov’s two difficulties vanish of themselves.
Solving Shestov’s First Difficulty
We have seen that the phenomenon is a property of the thing-in-itself. Think of a property of Reuven, for example that he is kind-hearted or tall. Is it correct to say that Reuven is the cause of his kindness or of his height? These are his properties, and the relation between a thing and its properties is not causal. A car is made of metal and appears elegant to me. Is the car the cause of its being elegant or the cause of its being metal? Certainly not. The thing does not cause its properties; rather, it is the bearer of those properties, which characterize it. Now consider, in light of this, whether it is correct to say that encountering Reuven’s kindness or his tallness still leaves a question mark regarding the existence of the object as it is in itself. Can one ask us, “Whence do you know that Reuven really exists—after all, you only encountered his properties?” That is absurd. If we encountered the properties, then evidently there is something or someone who bears those properties.
It is important to understand that this conclusion is not connected in any way to the principle of causality. I know that Reuven exists not because he is the cause of his properties (he is not), but simply because I saw him. What I actually saw were his height, width, skin color—or, more abstractly, I encountered his kindness. From all this I can say without any problem that I encountered Reuven himself; that is, infer that there exists someone whose properties these are. The principle of causality is not involved here in any way. Seeing Reuven created in my cognition an image that represents him, but that image is the apprehension of Reuven-as-he-is-in-himself. Thus a host of problems included in Shestov’s first difficulty quietly dissolves.
A Different Formulation
In light of what I have said here, one can add and argue that even if I adopt the assumption that the noumenon is the cause of the phenomenon, I still see no difficulty in applying the principle of causality to the noumenon. The fact that I use the principle of causality is because of my cognitive faculties—but once these are my faculties, why should I not use them also with respect to the noumenon?! For example, my eyesight was produced by evolution. Does that mean I cannot use my eyes when I study evolution? Not to mention using my very thinking faculties to study the modes of my own thinking. That is exactly what many researchers in different fields do (logicians, psychologists, biologists, etc.), and I see no problem in it. The circularity here is only apparent. Not every circularity yields a paradox—see on this in columns 157 – 158 and in more detail in the lecture series on self-reference.
In columns 99, 164, and 465 I offered a similar example regarding the use of the time axis with respect to the past. There I cited the claim of Rabbi Shem-Tov Gefen, who explains that if we adopt the Kantian view that time is a subjective category of the human being (and does not exist in the world itself), then the problem of the age of the world (which is not ~6,000 years, as tradition says, but about 14 billion years) is solved at once. His claim was that time is subjective and therefore it was born with the human being, whence it is clear that the age of the world is that of the human being (the homo temporalicus). I explained there that R. Shem-Tov Gefen errs here, for even if time is a subjective category that serves us, there is no impediment to using it with respect to the past—both for times that preceded my own existence (my grandfather’s birth) and even for times that preceded all of humanity (the creation of the world). Not every application of a tool to stages logically prior to it is a vicious logical loop.
Accordingly, to the same extent I can use the principle of causality and all my rational assumptions to analyze and make claims about the noumenon. It is a subject like any other, and I treat it with my existing tools of reasoning and analysis, which, by definition, belong to the phenomenal realm.
Solving Shestov’s Second Difficulty
Shestov’s second difficulty concerned the question of who created within me the templates that shape the phenomenal image in my cognition. Here too he errs in the same way. These templates are only a language by which I express reality as it is in itself. They do not create a separate world that stands opposite and contrary to the world-as-it-is-in-itself; rather, they mirror and translate the world-as-it-is-in-itself into my personal language (or, in fact, the inter-personal language of human beings). Therefore it does not matter at all how this language was created—just as there is little point in discussing who created the Dutch language or the Zimbabwean language. So long as it is a language that can be spoken, there is no impediment to using it to describe anything, including the mechanisms that created it itself.
In other words, it is not correct to say that the phenomenon imprinted cognitive and conceptual categories within us. There is no such thing as “the phenomenon” at all, and therefore it cannot imprint anything in us or do anything else to us. The phenomenon is a reflection of the noumenon in our cognition, but what actually exists are only the things-in-themselves, and thus only they can act and bring about consequences. My cognitive faculties were produced by evolutionary mechanisms, or by the Creator, or by a demon in the shape of a monkey. None of this matters. Once they were produced, this is the language I use, and there is no impediment to using it to describe the noumenon and thereby create the phenomenal image. In short, this set of tools is what creates the phenomenon, not the other way around—and thus Shestov’s second difficulty is resolved.
Conclusions and Interim Summary
Thus Shestov’s difficulties ultimately fall as well. The Kantian distinction between phenomenon and noumenon is entirely reasonable, and likely correct. There is no inherent difficulty in it, so long as one understands it correctly. However, as I noted above, even if it is correct, it does not solve the epistemic rupture. We saw that it does not offer an answer to Hume’s difficulties (i.e., to the problem of the synthetic a priori, in Kant’s terminology). Thus we are still left facing a broken trough. Philosophy, with all the variety of its schools, and all the proposals raised over history, fails to provide a sufficient justification for our use of the tools of thought and cognition when we seek to know the world (for example, when we do science)—and this includes Kant’s heroic attempt. It turns out that we have information about the world that is not the product of observation, and the empiricist alternative collapses. On the other hand, the critique of rationalism seems very reasonable. It is implausible to build knowledge about the world solely from my intuitions. My thinking consists of structures embedded within me, and there is no reason to assume they reflect what happens in the world as it is in itself.
These are the epistemic ruins that accompany Lev Shestov. The difficulties he raised do not destroy the rational world, but he is right that this world indeed does not hold water. Among the graves of these philosophical and scientific ideas wander Zeitlin and Shestov, seeking (and perhaps also finding) God. I will address this point in the next column.
A Closing Note on the Nature of Philosophy
To conclude, I will note a common view about philosophy. People feel there is no point in engaging in philosophy because it contains so many schools and opinions, as numerous as the sand on the seashore, and we have no way to decide between them (for observation cannot decide a philosophical question—otherwise it would be science, not philosophy). From this, many people—especially scientists—conclude that philosophy cannot advance us anywhere.
The epistemic rupture is a good counterexample to this view. Here is a question to which many answers were proposed in the history of philosophy—yet it turns out that none of them hold water. They are not empirically refuted, since this is philosophy and not science, but the very thinking that produced them is what overturns them. They are a priori (i.e., philosophical) refutations. Thus, anyone who proposes a conclusion that rises from these ruins can indeed claim that philosophy obligates us to adopt that conclusion. In other words, one can certainly learn from philosophy, and a multiplicity of opinions does not always indicate a multiplicity of truths. Sometimes it indicates a confusion rich in errors, and sometimes it consists of different formulations of the same answer. There are questions in philosophy that can certainly lead us to concrete conclusions. In my series of columns on philosophy (155 – 160) I discussed this point at length (indeed, the whole series is devoted to it).
In the next column I will walk from the ruins of the epistemic rupture toward God, and we will return to the difference between Zeitlin’s intellectual pessimism and the intellectual optimism that I propose.
[1] This is a common but incorrect description. Copernicus did not discover any new scientific fact about the world, and the views that preceded him are not wrong. Copernicus merely proposed a coordinate system more efficient and convenient than its predecessor. I discussed this in my article here, in column 481, in the Q&A here, and elsewhere.
[2] I should note that my goal here is not to reconcile Kant’s doctrine. Even if the interpreters are right in the claim I will bring here, they are not right in terms of the truth. Therefore, the following should be read not as an interpretation of Kant but as my philosophical claim regarding the Kantian distinction between phenomenon and noumenon.
Good week!
1) I don't understand Shlomo Maimon's question, then there must be a connection between the naumena and the phenomenon, so what is the cause of the phenomenon? And shouldn't we say that according to the naumena there is no causality, because since there is no connection at all between the naumena and the phenomenon, then shouldn't we assume that there is no reason for the phenomenon because the phenomenon has causality, and therefore there is a connection between them?
2) Another comment - if there is no connection at all between the naumena and the phenomenon, then Kant's words are not understood, because since Kant argued that causality is only a category in the phenomenon, then why did he say that there is no causality there, and since there is no access to the naumena, then how can we talk about it?
3) Is it possible to summarize the fundamental question with Kant's solution - how does science bother to act according to the formulas of the phenomenon?
1. I didn't understand a word.
2. Just to be precise, Maimon didn't say there's no connection, but rather there's no causal connection (he didn't say it at all, but rather the difficulty). Beyond that, your question is a special case of Shastov's question 1.
3. I don't know what it means that science is "bothering". I explained the difficulty to my understanding.
In my opinion, your solution to the transcendental separation of the noumenon from the phenomenon is simply Spinoza-style pantheism.
Identity of the thing-in-itself with its appearance in human consciousness.
Only we perceive the thing-in-itself in a limited part of its infinite appearing aspects
I didn't understand the connection between the words in this message. Why isn't it related to the debate about capitalism or the plight of the daughter?
A simple question that is not in the field.
According to Kant, how can the future be predicted?
I understand that you are not in the field, but at least your question should be formulated in an understandable way. Please explain two things: 1. Who said that according to his method it is possible to predict the future? (Actually, what is predicting the future anyway: people's choices? Deterministic calculation?) 2. Why do you think his position denies this?
I know that in a while there will be a solar eclipse, or some other natural phenomenon. How can one even predict it, since in things themselves everything is chaos. Do I predict what I will receive?
And how do I know that we all have the same thought categories?
I asked you why it is possible to predict the future according to Kant.
But even if we assume that it is, I don't see a problem. He predicts what he will see in the future in light of present circumstances. Why is it possible to predict reality and not what I will see? Everything that is usually attributed to the world in itself, Kant attributes to the phenomenon, and everything you are used to saying about the world is now said about the phenomenon. There are laws of nature, and according to Kant they describe the phenomenon. If they are correct, then I don't see why events in the phenomenon cannot be predicted according to them.
According to my own interpretation of his words, the problem of course does not arise at all, since the phenomenon is nothing more than a language for describing the noumena. There is no mess in the noumena, except that the description of what happens there is done in our language.
The question of why Kant assumes that we all have the same categories of thought (he replaces objectivity with intersubjectivity) is a question that many have already raised about him. I assume he hears others describe what they are experiencing and it sounds similar to what he is experiencing himself. Don't forget that other people are also just a phenomenon in his consciousness, and that is what he is talking about.
I didn't understand the answer to the question of causality, because as much as it is a property of the phenomenon, why assume that it also occurs in the world per se?
Or in other words, why is your solution, which relies on the fact that there is no fundamental problem with loops or circular reference, better than the question of why assume that the tools of thought (and the causality within them) reflect the world per se?
First I argued that we do not apply the principle of causality to the noumena. Then I just added that even if we did, there is no problem. When we adopt the principle of causality, we now use it for everything, and I gave some examples of this. It is clearly preferable to adopt a principle that makes no sense to adopt. An arbitrarily created system cannot be reliable. Here there is a positive reason to reject the reliability of the senses. Circularity is a problem, and since I have shown that there is no problem here, there is no problem.
Thank you!
How can you not apply the principle of causality to the noumena? Because by what other principle would you connect the phenomenon to the noumena?
I didn't fully understand the spelling error in ”Clearly it is preferable to adopt a principle that makes no sense to adopt”
You meant it is preferable not to adopt (because it is two corrections of words and not just letters).
Also, you mentioned,
Circularity is a problem and since I showed that there is no problem here, there is no problem. Do you mean that there is no fundamental problem with loops and that is what you showed? Or something side-by-side?
What answer do you expect? Every link I make will accuse me of being drawn from the phenomenon and I am applying it to the noumena. Therefore, I claim that the connection between them can be what is perceived in the phenomenon as causal. In the noumena, this is something I do not know how to describe, by the very fact that it belongs to the noumena. I will mention again that in principle I do not apply causality to the noumena, not because it is problematic but because there is no need for it. The phenomenon is a description in our language of the noumena, and a property is not causally generated by the object carrying the property, as I explained in the column.
“ال” instead of “لع”.
Yes.
I wanted to ask what the Rabbi thinks about the sentence you asked,
“If it weren't for Demistafina, I would say that in principle this is also true with respect to God in His own right”
Doesn't this contradict the Maimonides' approach: “He is the knower and He is the known and He is the knowledge itself, all one”
I hope the Rambam understood what he wrote here. I don't. In any case, I have no problem disagreeing with his approach on such issues.
I didn't understand why Kant needed to explain that a specific law (in your example, Newton's second law) is the product of our cognition. What's the problem with saying that meta-scientific principles are those that depend on our cognition (like causality, etc.) and that the particular law is a product of the world itself (or at least the interpretation we give it according to meta-scientific principles) in the example of Newton's law, why not simply say that we don't see different behavior of force because it doesn't exist in practice (and again, it's clear that all of this is in our concepts and depends on a priori principles like causality, etc.) Thanks
The question is how does this miracle happen that what we observe in our minds actually happens and what doesn't? There is information about the world here that was not collected observationally.
Why aren't meta-scientific principles sufficient for this? It's clear that the principle of causality and induction (and probably a few others) are not observational, but why isn't Newton's second law considered observational after being based on the principle of induction and causality, etc.
Precisely because it is based on them. If you create a natural law that is built on incorrect principles, there is no reason to assume that it will be correct.
You wrote that if we encountered the qualities (of Reuven) then we probably encountered someone who possesses these qualities (in a non-causal relation of inclusion).
But what is the justification for this understanding according to the two methods you put forward to understand Kant?
For example, the conventional approach that the coordination between the phenomenon and the noumena is causal as you mentioned, so you do not rely on a relation of inclusion but on the lack of the problem of circularity, but that will not help here.
The connection between a thing and its properties is not causal. But even if someone insists that there is causality here, it is difficult to accept that if I have encountered the properties, I still doubt the existence of a thing. But that is gibberish, because it is clear that the connection is not causal.
Regarding Rasht Gefen's mistake, it seems that this can be excused with the same distinction as in the example of the tree that does not make a sound when no one hears it, but only creates waves.
Similarly, what creates our space-time existed for many years, and in retrospect, perhaps we can say that so and so time passed, but time as a thing perceived by man (like sound, which is what is perceived by man as a result of an acoustic pressure wave) has existed for only less than six thousand years.
And perhaps according to this, an interpretation can be offered for the world to exist for only six thousand years - after six thousand years, man's ability to perceive will have developed greatly and will perceive in a different way than today, which will no longer happen in a time like ours today.
I don't understand what you want to solve and what solution you propose.
A book about this has just been published, "Does the World Really Exist?"
I'm just finishing reading it now. Maybe I'll write a column about it.
Hello, hello. I am one of its authors, and I just came across the discussion here.
I think if you've read my columns you can see that I don't agree with the philosophical implications. I'll say right away that I think the scientific presentation is very impressive in its ability to clarify and make complex ideas accessible.
The main disagreement between you and Guy is whether, in addition to Kant's a priori synthetic idea, you also need to posit a correlative factor that would constitute justification, right?
In a conversation with someone, I thought that to the extent that one posits a correlative factor, wouldn't it be more reasonable a priori to posit a naive worldview that we can certainly understand the world in its entirety, which of course doesn't fit with the complexity of science, and modern science in particular..?
The argument that there is an argument between Guy and Ramda is valid only on the assumption that the world exists. On the other hand, if the world does not exist, then both Guy and Ramda do not exist and there is no argument, unless we assume that even non-existent beings can argue 🙂
With blessings, there was or there was not
And perhaps the philosophical debate about whether the world ‘exists’ or not, is parallel to the debate about whether ’reduction’is simple or not.
Best regards, Gal Quentin
Absolutely not. I have no idea whether the authors assume a correlative factor or not. This is not discussed in the book. I have an argument with the book on three levels:
1. Regarding the very interpretation of the Kantian picture. In my opinion, they made the same mistake that I argued about in the previous column.
2. They present the Kantian picture as a solution to an ontological problem, but in my opinion Kant wants to solve an epistemic problem.
3. I think (I haven't finished reading yet) that they draw conclusions about the existence of the world from the scientific picture (relativity and quantum mechanics), but in my opinion such conclusions do not follow from it. Everything can be found in the realm of phenomena. But as I said, I haven't finished reading yet, so I will suspend judgment for now.
As for your question at the end, assuming an unfounded worldview is not an option for anything. You can always assume unfounded assumptions instead of a logical explanation.
1 and 2 are actually two sides of the same coin, aren't they?
Because as soon as you talk about the meaning of the term perception (versus limitation), then the doubt becomes epistemic and not ontic anyway.
Regarding the end, I pretty much agree, but for some reason, whenever the concept of God is brought up on the table, then a naive perception is suddenly assumed, like the paradoxes that atheists claim. I can't explain why.
In my opinion, there is no connection. Perception and a limitation on perception both belong to epistemology.
As mentioned, I am considering perhaps writing a column where I will clarify more.
I'm not sure I understood the answer (as if you meant that both answers assume a worldview that is already out there).
But I'll wait for the thank you column anyway.
I will admit that I haven't had time to read it yet, I came across the discussion by chance. I thank you from the bottom of my heart for the compliment, and I am very happy to hear it. We did our best, Prof. Ben Israel, the editor Shmuel Rosner and myself.
Shmuel was the one who gave me the book (in an interview I conducted with him for his tractate, in the Hedgehog and the Fox series). 🙂
By the way, these columns were written regardless. Coincidentally, the interview was around the time I finished writing the columns and then I received the book.
Oh, wonderful! I'll listen to the tractate! 🙂 Shmuel is a wonderful person and a very sharp and wise editor.
Quote:
“But to perceive something means to bring it into our conceptual and cognitive framework. This is the meaning of the perception of the noumena. Therefore, we certainly can and do perceive the table in itself.”
This is the Michaian perception – as our Rabbi comments in note (2) – According to Ruba Dempershi Kant –
We perceive what we perceive – not the table in itself.
According to Schopenhauer (in ”The Great Philosophers ” published by “Yediot Ahronoth ) – The noumena is one –
because it is beyond the concepts of time and place – and only these concepts allow us to feel separateness –
The table does not exist in the noumena.
As for the “discussion of the noumena in the concepts of causality”, Rabbi Michael Avraham claims that there is no reason not to do so. But this noumena that he discusses is the noumena in his perception, as the saying goes, the noumena in the phenomenal world. (Slomo Maimon) And the matter has already been discussed in two carts and in a distant time.
You write this here in a comment and you wrote it in several other places that Copernicus just described the system differently and the previous perception is not wrong.
Do you mean to say that according to Copernicus' time and the issue he discussed, the geocentric method could have been correct or even in today's scientific understanding could it be a correct description? Doesn't this contradict the whole idea of gravity where an object with a smaller mass revolves around an object with a larger mass? Is it possible to describe gravity in the opposite way where the larger object revolves around the smaller one? And what about the other planets, can they also be said to revolve around the Earth?
There is no connection to the size of the mass, and no one thinks that it is the smaller one that rotates around the larger one. In modern physics, there is an objective definition of rotation, but it is a dynamic definition, not a kinematic one. In other words, it is a definition adopted by physics, but it is only a definition. Logically, there is no way to determine who rotates around whom.
Proofreading: “The mental constraints that Kant spoke about certainly exist” – according to the continuation, it is clear that ”the cognitive constraints”.
Thought forces consciousness.
You say at the end of the sentence, "But I see no logic in assuming that the constraints of our thought necessarily translate into cognitive constraints."
True. I don't think that mental constraints force consciousness.
I just explained why I was proofreading. Maybe I didn't understand something in the syntax, and then there's no need to respond; but it seems to me that in light of the rest of the sentence, it should be corrected in its head as follows.