A mitzvah from the Torah that follows a rabbinical transgression
I once asked you if there is a mitzvah that comes with a sin in Durban and you referred me to the sign of the Tarmat in Ramat, but there it is a sin. From the Torah in a mitzvah from the rabbis. I wanted to ask what happens the other way around, when the transgression is from the rabbis in order to fulfill a mitzvah from the Torah?
Simply put, there is a law for a mitzvah that results in an offense even when the offense is rabbinical. See, for example, Rashi Pesachim 3:2, 3:1, “Damai,” who wrote that a person does not fulfill the obligation of a mitzvah by performing a mitzvah, and the mitzvah that results in an offense is nullified for him. Damai is a rabbinical offense.
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