Transgender Individuals in Halakha: A. Conceptual Analysis (Column 701)
With God’s help
Disclaimer: This post was translated from Hebrew using AI (ChatGPT 5 Thinking), so there may be inaccuracies or nuances lost. If something seems unclear, please refer to the Hebrew original or contact us for clarification.
The LGBT topic has arisen with greater intensity in the last generation. Regarding homosexuality (male and female), the situation is fairly simple: the act is prohibited—by Torah law for men and apparently by rabbinic law for women. I once suggested the possibility of permitting even the act itself, specifically on the basis of R. Moshe Feinstein’s words, though he strongly opposed such permission. But this is a highly novel argument and I am far from certain about it, so without broad agreement I am very hesitant to rule accordingly. That addresses the “LGB” letters (lesbians, gays, and bisexuals), which concern sexual orientation. With the “T” (trans), far more complex issues arise. There we are not discussing a forbidden act of intercourse as with LGB, but a highly intricate question that concerns the person’s halakhic status: is the individual male or female? Beyond that, some undergo actual physical gender-reassignment surgery, which raises questions about the permissibility of the surgery itself (primarily castration/sterilization prohibitions).
In the past two months I received at least two questions on this matter (see here and here), and I thought it appropriate to devote a special column to it. My treatment of the issue also serves as a model for my belief in first-order psak (see for example columns 332, 562, 637, and more; and also my article here). I will briefly recall that first-order psak has two main components: autonomy and conceptual analysis. A first-order posek does not accord high standing to precedent and recognizes no formal authority after the Talmud. In addition, first-order psak requires conceptual analysis before turning to examine sources and precedents. In not a few cases, such analysis almost obviates reliance on halakhic sources, since it brings us to the warranted conclusion—or at least to a state of doubt with clear sides—where sources likely cannot help us decide. Conceptual analysis exposes the fundamental questions in the discussion and, not infrequently, shows that the sources are irrelevant to at least some of these substantive questions. A particularly sharp example is the discussion about a girl saying Kaddish. My claim there was that there is no point bringing precedents and arguments, because there is nothing to discuss: no one raised a substantive claim—that is, reasons to prohibit a woman from saying Kaddish—simply because there are none. Therefore sources and arguments are unnecessary to permit it.
In one of the aforementioned threads dealing with the transgender question, someone linked to an article by Rabbi Yoschua (Yeshayahu) Katz that extensively surveys the halakhic perspective on this topic. Through it I became acquainted with a fascinating and original person, and it is indeed worthwhile for you to read a bit about him. For me this article constitutes a model of revolutionary psak that employs standard tools, and to some extent it challenges my definitions of first- and second-order psak. Nevertheless, I will state already here that I strongly disagree with his conclusions and also with his halakhic method, primarily because although he is close to first-order in his attitude toward precedents, he lacks conceptual analysis. I also have criticism of his handling of precedents and standard halakhic aspects, but my principal critique is for the absence of conceptual analysis. I will try to add that analysis, and then in my view it will become clear that what is essential is missing from R. Katz’s article. As noted, this will also sharpen the meaning of first-order psak in its two components.
I will begin not with a critique but with a column that presents the analysis and the picture as I see it, in order to provide a framework for my main critique of his analysis, which will appear in the next column. Pay attention to the stages of the preliminary analysis, for the structure illustrates how to approach a first-order conceptual analysis of questions of this complexity, and why this must precede the halakhic discussion and engagement with sources and arguments.
A schematic description of the issue: eight sectors or two?
The LGBT world comprises three principal axes: sex (physiological-genetic: XX or XY, expressed in bodily characteristics like sex organs), gender (the subjective experience of male or female), and sexual orientation (attraction to men or to women). In principle this space yields eight different possibilities (any 3-length vector whose components are {0,1}). This is, of course, a binary and therefore simplistic description, since there are asexual, agender, bisexual, and bigender persons and other shades in between ad nauseam. For our purposes I will be content to sketch the map according to these eight possibilities, with apologies to the punctilious in queer matters. I think this will suffice to clarify the issue; the rest, go and study.
In the traditional thinking that prevailed until a few generations ago it was clear that these three axes should coincide. One whose sex is male is also male in gender and attracted to women—and vice versa. That is, the map comprised two sectors, not eight. Of course, it was known that opposite sexual orientations existed, but this was treated as a deviation that did not change the essential map. There have always been sick and mentally ill people of various kinds. Dysphoria surrounding gender was less present in the discourse; I think this matter is new.
An illustration and a note on manners
To illustrate: I know a person who is a trans woman—namely, male in sex who regards himself, in terms of gender, as a woman—whose sexual orientation is toward women (he/she has a female partner). He naturally regards himself as a lesbian, but in simple terms he is just straight (a man attracted to women) with “quirks” (since, gender-wise, he sees himself as a woman. He has what is called “gender dysphoria”, although he does not suffer from it, so there is no psychiatric diagnostic issue here).[1]
And please do not ask why I wrote “he” (and not “she”) and “himself” (and not “herself”). This is an opportunity to say in advance that I dismiss outright criticisms from the political correctness police as well as coercive demands to address someone in one form or another. I reserve the freedom to express myself as I see fit. On the other hand, I do not intend thereby to take a stand for the other (more conservative) side. My concern here is a conceptual, substantive inquiry, not manners, and I choose terminology based on convenience, clarity, and habit. If someone doesn’t like it—so be it.
A sober look at the facts
It seems unreasonable to deny these phenomena on the factual plane. Factually, there appear to be individuals whose sex is male but whose subjective feeling is female, and vice versa. This is certainly true regarding sexual orientation, which is easier to define (at least as a feeling). Some indeed deny this factually and see it as inclination of the yetzer or as cultural influences, but that is an unreasonable conservative claim, at least absent supporting evidence.
A person can be born without a hand, or with two hearts and three legs. A person can be born with mental impairments and various psychiatric illnesses. A person can feel that he is Napoleon, Abraham our forefather, a demon, an alien, a cat, or the messiah. So why dismiss out of hand the possibility that a man could be born with feelings of being a woman, or vice versa? Not a few people insistently report that this is their condition, and in my view it is not reasonable to dismiss this a priori (unless there is evidence to the contrary, and I don’t think there is). The fact that these phenomena are new and that they increase as public recognition and legitimacy increases is not evidence that this is nurture rather than nature. Clearly people feared coming out, and in fact lacked a language to define their own feelings; once legitimacy and language emerged, they diagnosed what was in them before. Moreover, even if it is indeed nurture, it is still very plausible that the phenomenon exists factually. At the very least, it is not a possibility that can be dismissed a priori; therefore rejecting the eight-sector picture I presented is, in my eyes, unreasonable.
Facts and norms: the naturalistic fallacy
Of course, in these issues too one cannot evade the question of the relationship between facts and norms. The eight-sector picture I described deals with the factual level: there do indeed appear to be eight such sectors in reality. That in itself says nothing about how one ought to relate to them: whether to see them as legitimate, as illness or deviation, and the like. Above I compared gender dysphoria—or any of the six new sectors—to someone who feels he is Napoleon or a cat. We are used to regarding such phenomena as mental illness, and thus perhaps gender dysphoria deserves such treatment. The factual claim that such dysphoria exists does not say whether it is legitimate or not. Those are normative questions, and as we learned from our teacher RRD Dayan ztz”l, judgments and norms are not derived from facts. Factual claims alone are insufficient to produce a normative claim. I can concede the facts and still regard it as a deviation or illness; I can also not see it as such. I can view it as cultural or even as a sham that does not truly exist factually, and still be tolerant toward those declarations on the normative plane.
What is “illness”?
I must add a note on what constitutes illness/deviation, though I have discussed this at length elsewhere (see, for example, in my article on Halakha and reality, and the discussion with Yoram Yovel in columns 25–26. A concise review with references appears in column 146). The assertion that some symptom is an illness or deviation is empty of content. It is a statement made under the veneer of science, but its real meaning is “I deem this undesirable.” Although Foucault is the father of this approach, it is nonetheless correct (to teach you that even a broken clock tells the right time twice a day): there is no scientific definition for concepts like illness or deviation, and even if there is, it is based on value-laden conceptions, not on facts and science alone (even Yoram Yovel conceded as much in our discussion). I claim this regarding physical illnesses as well, not only mental ones. In the physical domain we agree that what is painful or dangerous is undesirable, so there it is easier to use terms like “illness.” But in principle, even there, to say that something is an illness is merely to say it is undesirable (because I do not want pain or death).
So too for claims that these phenomena are “unnatural.” I have never understood what exactly such claims mean. Is a height of 1.95 meters natural? It is unusual compared with the norm. Is anything unusual unnatural? If so, the claim is emptied of content—and it certainly bears no relation to whether a thing is desirable. So what precisely is meant by the claim that homosexuality or dysphoria is “unnatural”? That it characterizes only a small portion of the population? So does the aforementioned height. Once again, Foucault sneaks in through the back door.
Therefore, I will allow myself below to ignore the unnecessary and empty question of whether this is illness or deviation and/or whether it is natural, and focus on the sole relevant question: whether it is desirable and how it is right to relate to it. This is a direct normative formulation that does not hide behind a confusing scientific veneer, as if this were a discussion about facts. If the question were whether it is an illness, then it would be natural to turn to experts (physicians or psychiatrists). But that question has nothing to do with expertise. It is a purely value-laden question, and experts have no added value regarding it.
Extreme queerness: what is a woman?
Since we mentioned Foucault, let us take one step further and discuss the postmodern emptying of queer concepts. In columns 497 and 504 I explained the innovation in extreme queer conceptions; I will briefly repeat it here.
Moderate queer views attempt to argue that we should acknowledge these phenomena as existing (and of course also view them as neutral phenomena—not undesirable, not illness or deviation). In this I tend to agree. As I explained, there is no point denying reality even if it doesn’t sit well with us. Our normative stance (the “ought”) should not determine the facts (the “is”). That would be the inverted naturalistic fallacy (really a kind of pragmatism). In the naturalistic fallacy we let facts determine norms: if homosexuality is unnatural then it is negative. In the inverted fallacy we go the other way: if it is negative then it does not exist (or is not natural).
The factual claims above assume that there are certain characteristics of the female gender and others of the male gender. This is not a closed list, and the definitions are flexible and not mathematical—but even so there is such a definition. Flexible definitions of this kind exist in medicine, and even more so in psychiatry. For example, one might require six out of ten features, in varying intensities, to determine that someone has disease X (physical or mental). In my view that is a definition, because it provides some criterion by which to decide the question at hand. If there exists such a flexible definition for the two genders, one can say that a person whose sex is female can feel, in terms of gender, like a man. If he has feelings that meet the above definition of “male,” then gender-wise he is male. That is the factual claim.
Up to this point we have a sober, moderate queer view. Now comes the step of emptying. Next arose a more extreme queer conception that holds that each person defines their own gender as they see fit. If a certain person sees himself as a woman, we must honor this: he is indeed a woman. But as Matt Walsh wonders in the film discussed in column 497: what precisely is that person supposed to feel when he says he feels like a woman? If there truly is no set of traits that (even flexibly) defines the two genders, then the concepts “woman” and “man” are emptied of content. In the absence of any objective definition for the concept, it remains empty. A person can feel like a worm and decide that a “worm” is a man, and thus demand we regard him as a man. Likewise, another person can see himself as a worm but consider a worm to be a woman, and demand we regard him as a woman. These concepts become circular and thus contentless. The only way to define “woman” under extreme queerness is: a woman is anyone who feels herself to be a woman. But an definition cannot contain the very concept it seeks to define, for the purpose of a definition is to clarify the concept at issue. If you don’t understand it, a circular definition won’t help. In the same way one cannot define a Jew as follows: a Jew is anyone who feels he is a Jew. Despite the folly of that circular definition, it is astounding how many adopt such a “definition” for their (secular) Jewishness. Well, there is in fact no such concept as “secular Judaism,” so circularity is inevitable. But by the same token, extreme queerness does not say the concept “woman” is flexible or that one may use it as one understands; its claim is essentially that there is no such concept. It is empty. That is a legitimate claim, but they will never say it that way, since once one grasps that meaning, the demand that we treat that person as a woman or as a man becomes itself empty. One cannot demand that I attach an empty word to a person just because he wants me to.
To sharpen: one could try to demand that I see a specific person as a woman even though in my view he is a man. The claim would be that I am mistaken about the definition of woman or man. I am not necessarily accepting that demand; I might agree or disagree, but it is not conceptually absurd. In extreme queer discourse, however, that demand is utterly absurd: you are demanding that I use a word that has no meaning, just because you want me to. I can find no justification for such a demand. It is blatant coercion, even abuse.
I added this section only to complete the conceptual picture. From here on I will ignore the circular, empty-minded adherents of extreme queerness. They are just mumbling meaningless words. For our purposes, the discussion concerns only the moderate queerness described thus far. That view first demands that we acknowledge the facts of the eight-sector picture. Thereafter it demands that we treat such people in a proper, ordinary way like anyone else—that is, to see this as a normal phenomenon just like the two traditional genders. In short: they demand that we treat a trans woman (male in sex, who feels female in gender) as a woman, and a trans man (female in sex, who feels male in gender) as a man.
So what is the argument actually about?
This brings us back to the question of manners. What is the dispute between those who insist that we treat a trans woman as a woman and those who demand we see “him” as a man? Now this is easy to understand: the dispute is over whether the terms “man” and “woman” refer to sex or to gender. Conservatives claim they refer to sex; queers claim they should refer to gender.
As long as we are speaking of manners, then even under the moderate queer picture I do not think I must yield to a trans person’s demand that I address him as a man (or her as a woman). If I regard him as a woman, he cannot force me to address him as a man. There is a dispute between us (at least semantic—and the whole discussion is semantic). Thus, even though I agree there is a dispute with two sides, I refuse to accept the demand that tries to impose terminology upon me that I do not accept or do not like (it suffices that it doesn’t sit well with me). I myself might address him as he wishes, simply because I see no reason to anger or hurt him; but I have no criticism of one who does not. He has the right to use the terminology that seems right to him, just as the trans person has the right to use the terminology that seems right to him. No one can impose terminology on the other.
The harder question is not one of manners but of normative issues. Should he truly be accorded the status of a woman? Should he be allowed to compete in women’s sports, use women’s restrooms, sit in the women’s section, etc.? Here this is no longer a semantic or etiquette question but a normative one, and it requires discussion. The question is not whether I have a right to speak this way or that, but what is the truth: is he a man or a woman?
I will now clarify the nature of this discussion further, and we will see that it is essentially a classic lomdishe chakira (analytical inquiry). This already brings us closer to the halakhic discussion.
The lomdishe inquiry
Formerly the prevailing view was that sex and gender go together: one whose sex is male also feels male in gender, and vice versa. In such a situation there is no trans phenomenon, and thus no ambiguity about any person as to whether to see him as a man or a woman. Everything was clear. But now the factual picture is clearer, and we understand there are eight different sectors. Among other things, there is a male in sex who feels gender-wise like a woman, and vice versa. What shall we do with this person? This is essentially a lomdishe inquiry: one must investigate whether the term “man” (and likewise “woman”) refers to sex or perhaps to gender. If to sex, then a trans woman (AMAB) is halakhically a man; if to gender, a trans woman is halakhically a woman. The Talmudic-style Aramaic I used earlier serves only to illustrate that there is nothing here beyond a standard lomdishe inquiry of the kind we know many of. It is a case of a change in reality that necessitates a new approach, and that approach depends on investigating the original meaning.
Let us take a very similar example in Halakha (see my article here). The Meiri argues that the attitude to non-Jews in his time should be like that to Jews, since they are bound by civilized norms. This is despite the Talmud’s sharp distinction between Jews and non-Jews in many laws. In my article I explained his argument as follows: formerly there was an identity between a non-Jew who practiced idolatry and a rasha (all non-Jews practiced idolatry and behaved wickedly). Now a new reality has arisen: there are non-Jews who practice idolatry but behave humanely (“bound by civilized norms”). How should we apply the halakhic directives to such non-Jews? It depends on the inquiry whether the original Talmudic directives about non-Jews hinged on their idolatry or on their wicked conduct. Although those two features coincided then, there are practical differences for present-day non-Jews now that they have become separated.
Similarly, consider whether liability for damages rests on the owner’s negligence or on the mere fact that his property caused damage. The difficulty arises because in the usual cases there is no difference: in ordinary damage cases the defendant is the owner and he was also negligent. The practical differences arise in cases where there was negligence but no ownership (a thief, a custodian, one who set his fellow’s animal on a field), or where there is ownership but no negligence (not exact, for in such cases all agree there is no liability). In just this way, one can bring countless lomdishe inquiries that determine the law in a new reality wherein two variables that formerly coincided have become separated.
So too one can inquire regarding the halakhic-Torah concepts “man” and “woman”: when the Sages of the Talmud determined who is to be treated as a man and who as a woman, did they intend to tie this to sex or to gender? Remember that in their time these coincided, but there is still room to ask which of the two parameters is the relevant one for them. The practical difference is for trans people, where dysphoria separates sex from gender. This is the basis of the normative—and of course halakhic—discussion whether a trans individual has the status of a man or a woman. It is, in the end, a lomdishe inquiry about the meaning of these two concepts.
Implications: the standing of precedents and of the Talmud
A direct implication of the picture I have outlined is that, due to the change in reality that sparked the discussion, in most cases precedents will not help clarify the picture. For example, the halakhic discussion about the status of trans people is usually tied to the fact that the Talmud uses physical signs to determine a person’s sex, such as in the discussions of tumtum and androgynos, or in various sugyot where signs of physical maturity for males and females are used. From this many infer that according to the Talmud the physical sex determines whether someone is a man or a woman, not the (mental) gender.
But in light of what we have seen, this is incorrect for two reasons: (A) a logical error in inferring from those sugyot; (B) even if there is no logical error, the assumption that the sugyot determine such matters is itself mistaken. I begin with the logical error.
A. The logical error
We saw that in Talmudic times sex and gender were regarded as inseparable. They were not aware of the possibility of gender dysphoria. If so, the fact that the Talmud relied on physical signs does not mean those signs determine a person’s status. It could be that the reliance on physical signs is because sex was regarded as a sign of gender (since in the Sages’ view they always appeared together). If so, the Talmud might have understood gender to be the determinant—and that they chose physical signs to distinguish men from women only because these are more objective and easier to ascertain than gender (try defining male or female feelings). According to this, there is no obstacle to thinking that gender is the relevant parameter and sex is merely an indicator. In lomdishe terms: signs of maleness and femaleness are evidentiary signs, not causal grounds.
This argument assumes the Talmud’s authority is only in normative directives, but the Sages have no authority regarding factual determinations. That is, they may have thought sex and gender always go together, but today our scientific knowledge leads to the conclusion that they erred: there is gender dysphoria. As noted, regarding facts the Talmud has no authority (no one will be healed by Talmudic medical methods, because our current scientific knowledge says they do not work), and therefore we may disagree with its factual conceptions.
B. The normative error
Thus far I argued that one cannot prove from Talmudic sugyot that physical sex determines whether someone is a man or a woman. Now let us assume, for the sake of discussion, that one could indeed prove from the Talmud that physical sex determines a person’s status. I want to claim here that even if that were true, I would still not be obligated to adopt that view.
As I mentioned, in first-order psak precedents have no absolute standing. Yet on several occasions (see, for example, column 393) I have explained that the Talmud has binding authority, like the Sanhedrins (though for the Talmud this is by virtue of public acceptance rather than “lo tasur”). If so, it would seem I should adopt the Talmud’s determination—were there such a determination—that sex is what determines a person’s status. But here I add and argue that in such a matter this is not the case. The reason is that the Talmud’s normative determination that sex is decisive was made within a conceptual framework in which it was obvious that sex always matches gender. In our era, in which the factual understanding has changed, there is room to say that the normative conception can (and perhaps should) change as well.
Normative conceptions are not logically derived from factual premises, but there is no doubt that they are influenced by the factual-scientific picture. If the Sages lived in our time with our information, perhaps they would change their normative position as well—i.e., claim that gender determines. In such a case there is room to argue that even if we had proof of the Talmud’s normative position—that sex determines status—we would still not be obliged to adopt it, due to the change in circumstances.
I have argued similarly in the past about issues such as determining the moment of death (breathing, heart, brain), or various determinations about the status of a fetus (from what stage it is considered a living person whose killing is prohibited), or determining parentage (by genetics or by the womb), and so on. Contrary to what many think, all these are normative determinations, not factual, and therefore they are not entrusted to experts. At the same time, scientific knowledge about these situations can influence our normative conceptions of them. Therefore in all these matters, even if Talmudic precedents could be found to decide the dilemmas, I believe there is no necessity to adopt them, and one may decide contrary to them. Those Talmudic determinations were made by people operating within a very flawed and partial factual knowledge, sometimes entirely mistaken. Therefore their normative positions—being influenced by the factual picture—could also be mistaken. In such a case, in my view, there is no authority even regarding the normative determinations.
This connects to what we saw in column 699, namely that psak regarding specific situations requires first-hand familiarity with the situation. A lack of scientific knowledge about such situations constitutes a material lack of familiarity with them; therefore not only factual determinations but also normative determinations made under such deficiency are lacking, and there is no reason to assume they are correct and to obey them. As I explained there, a posek cannot adjudicate a situation that is so far from his world and which he does not know first-hand. This applies not only to ordinary poskim but also to the Sages of the Talmud.
Conclusions regarding the trans issue
As noted, the principal question is the status of a trans man or trans woman. In both cases sex and gender do not align, and therefore the answer depends on the lomdishe inquiry whether the relevant halakhot follow sex or gender. It would seem we must seek proofs from the Talmud to decide this inquiry. But we have seen that even if we had Talmudic evidence that the law follows sex (and in my view there is no such evidence, as explained above and see further in the next column), we would still not be obligated to accept it.
So what do we do? It seems we have no way to reach a definitive halakhic conclusion in this matter. What, then, should one who wishes to observe Halakha do? My answer is that we are effectively in a state of halakhic doubt—and doubt is not a vacuum. There are rules for how we act in cases of doubt, and the laws of doubt are part of Halakha. Therefore we must turn to the rules of doubt.
Before that, I will say that if someone has a clear intuitive sense of how to act—let him follow it. Although it is only an intuition and one could challenge him with “shall we act because we imagine?”, that is a very weak claim. The opposing position is also merely a sevara (reasoning), and the same challenge could be raised against it. The assumption is that if we adopt gender as the relevant criterion, we are changing the status quo and thus the burden of proof lies with us. But that is incorrect, for the claim is that this is not the status quo. All along, gender was decisive; they merely thought sex and gender were inseparable. Therefore, if gender is decisive, one could claim that this has always been the halakhic state of affairs. Moreover, sometimes when there is doubt we do not decide by the rules of doubt—stringency/leniency or chazakah—but according to the costs of each option. If adopting stringency in doubt exacts a heavy price, there is room to be lenient. Poskim tend to be lenient in times of duress, and I explained the difficulty and rationale for this in my article on leniency and stringency. In column 570 I also noted that the definition of leniency and stringency depends on the costs of the two sides, not necessarily on whether the action is active or passive (ko’ach vs. shev v’al ta’aseh; see also columns 416–415).
After all that, if indeed we remain in doubt, we should act according to the rules of doubt: de’oraita doubts lead to stringency; de-rabbanan doubts to leniency. There is no vacuum here, and one can observe Halakha even in these matters. Moreover, observing Halakha is not necessarily the conservative approach of determining status by sex rather than gender. My own sevarot have standing, and if I have no clear sevara, there are, of course, the rules of doubt.
Back to first- and second-order psak
Up to this point I have done only conceptual analysis. I have not dealt with sources, and I have even shown that even if there were relevant sources, they would have little standing. My conclusion is that, in these matters, conceptual analysis is the whole job we must do. Once we complete this stage, we reach the conclusion that halakhic study and precedents have almost no role here.
Second-order poskim begin with Talmudic sources, Rishonim and Acharonim, and deriving conclusions from their words. But conceptual analysis shows us that this approach is mistaken, and not only is it not binding—it can lead us to incorrect halakhic conclusions. Adhering to the Talmud’s conclusions, even if there are any here (and I think there are not), is no guarantee of correct halakhic conduct. It is possible that one who cleaves to the Talmud will in fact act in a way that does not accord with Halakha and the will of God (assuming the Talmud errs in these matters and that there is no obligation to obey it). At least in these cases (and in my view this is always so), first-order psak is more reliable and fitting than second-order psak. Moreover, a first-order posek also upholds the value of autonomy, so even if he were mistaken, there is still value in acting in this way (see my essays on autonomy here and here, and also columns 304, 626, and more).
Halakhic conclusions
There are quite a few questions regarding trans people. To conclude this column I will try to sketch briefly a schematic halakhic map as it emerges from the analysis I have offered. Further details will appear in the next column.
First and foremost is the question of the surgery itself. In Halakha there is a prohibition of sterilization/castration both for animals and for humans—that is, it is forbidden to eliminate the ability to have children. For men this is a Torah prohibition; for women there is a Tannaitic dispute (Tosefta Makkot 4:4), and practically almost all poskim hold that it is only rabbinic for women. It is plausible that this is because a woman is not commanded in “be fruitful and multiply,” but at most in something lighter (“lashevet yatzrah”—to populate). Therefore, in my view, here the issue does not hinge on the status of the trans person—whether male or female. One who has the ability to procreate may not neutralize it, regardless of whether he is considered male or female. In other words, regarding the obligation to have children and the prohibition of sterilization, it is plausible that status follows sex and not gender. Again, this is a sevara without clear sources, but absent clear evidence to the contrary, we follow sevara. This applies to a trans woman (male sex undergoing surgery to become female). For a trans man the prohibition is lighter (since in terms of sex “she” is female), and in cases of great necessity there is room to permit.
Regarding obligation in commandments, it would seem we are in doubt, and we should act according to the rules of doubt. However, reason suggests that in this matter specifically, gender (and not sex) is decisive. There is little sevara that physiological signs determine one’s halakhic standing. Regarding time-bound positive commandments, the Abudraham explains this in terms of a woman’s role (home and childrearing), and this obviously seems more fitting to gender than to sex. Moreover, some explain it as related to the nature of women, and it is very plausible that this is a mental/psychological nature rather than a physical one. Therefore I tend to think that for this matter we follow gender.
Regarding inclusion in a minyan, in my view there is room to include both types (trans men and trans women), due to a double doubt: doubt whether he/she is halakhically male or female, and doubt whether women cannot be counted in a minyan. In my opinion there is no impediment to including women in a minyan (see column 598), so there may be no doubt at all and they can be included.
As for yichud, women’s sections (which are a custom; there is no need to exaggerate their necessity—unless there is immodest dress), and the like, it seems that here the issue is arousal; therefore what matters is the person’s physical appearance and the sexual orientation of those around (though one can debate this somewhat). That is, if we are dealing with seclusion with a straight man, then a trans woman would be prohibited. Conversely, a trans woman should sit in the women’s section and not among the men; the reverse for a trans man.
Regarding “rounding the head” (pe’ot), this is interesting. R. Akiva Eger (to Shulchan Arukh, Yoreh De’ah §267) discusses the prohibition of rounding the head for a slave, who is halakhically compared to a woman. He argues there is a dispute between Bavli and Yerushalmi whether a slave is an upgraded non-Jew (i.e., a non-Jew whom the comparison to a woman obligates like a woman) or a downgraded Jew (a Jew obligated in all commandments, whom the comparison to a woman exempts from those women are exempt from). He claims that according to the second view there is a prohibition of rounding the head, since women are not exempt from it but rather it simply does not apply to them. For a slave it does apply, and therefore he would be prohibited like a man. According to the first view, a slave would be exempt, since there is no source prohibiting it upon him (for women are not prohibited; it simply does not apply). He is of course assuming that women are not exempt from the prohibition; it just does not apply to them. According to this, a trans man would be included in the prohibition, for with him it does apply. Incidentally, this suggests that a slave is an interesting parallel to our case: his gender and sex are male, but his halakhic status is like a woman; thus it seems we treat him as having “female” halakhic standing for certain laws. Perhaps we can learn from him regarding various halakhot whether they depend on sex (then he is like a man) or on gender/standing (then like a woman).
Regarding women’s dress / “a man’s article on a woman,” one must also consider whether this depends on sex, gender, or sexual orientation. If it is a safeguard against prohibited acts, then it is like women’s sections and yichud. If it is an intrinsic prohibition, perhaps it depends on gender. Here there is, I think, a real doubt, and in Torah matters there is room to be stringent.
In the next column we will read R. Y. Katz’s article critically; there I will enter more into specific halakhic questions and considerations.
[1] I will note that it is not clear to me how this acquaintance’s partner sees herself: does she regard herself as a lesbian or as straight? I assume as a lesbian, since that is what political correctness demands, and in those circles it is the binding religion.
I stopped in the middle, I didn't understand the difference between gender and extreme queerness,
Gender woman is when a person feels like a woman
You remind me of the Zen question: What is the difference between a rabbit and a rabbit? Let's rephrase the question, and it's worth noting what it's about.
But what exactly does he feel? What is the content of that sensation? After all, he doesn't feel that he is female, because that is not his gender. If so, what is a woman?
The concept of “gender” is truly empty of content. And I don't understand why he uses the words man and woman when these are simply names for a male and a female of the biological species of Homo sapiens (intelligent man. That is, the human species). Man and woman are names like bull and cow, which are the male and female of the biological species “housekeeper”. I don't know why they suddenly started lending them to those who have the behavior and mentality of a man and a woman, instead of a male and a female of the human species. Let them invent new words for it and stop confusing our minds.
Because it is true that there is a situation where the definition of concepts changes over time because a better definition is found that describes, captures, and captures the concept better than the previous definition. Like what is the definition of art or a fractal or the complexity and intricacy of an infinite series of literature (which has several competing mathematical definitions). But man and woman were not even fundamental concepts whose existence preceded their definition (and then they become non-fundamental), but a way of indicating the male and female of the human biological species because of its uniqueness. And that is why the concept of gender is empty. Should we start calling a male of the domestic cattle species – “cow”, if he starts exhibiting behaviors and psychological characteristics of a female domestic cattle?
From the beginning, this whole invention of this concept of gender was a kind of fraud. If it was something serious then the ”researchers” of this pseudoscientific field (who were simply psychologists and not “gender” researchers) would simply invent new words to denote the concept of a man behaving like a woman, say “woman” or “pink” or “pinky”, and the concept of a woman behaving like a man, “many men” or “blue” or “pinky”, without changing the meaning of the words man and woman.
Calling a woman who feels like a man “trans” and not “trans” is accepting the wording dictates of the aforementioned group to treat her as a man. Can you clarify the difference between accepting definitions for the purpose of discussion, even though they implicitly assume something and are also embarrassing, and accepting instructions on how to approach and treat people.
I didn't understand the question. I explained that I use the wording according to habit and according to what is comfortable and clear to me. That's all. There are no dictates here. Anyone who wants to express themselves differently can do so.
Is it comfortable and clear for you to call a female who identifies as a man a "trans" in the masculine gender? The trans man went to bed, the trans woman fell asleep on the bus.
You brought up the possibility that there is a similarity between gender dysphoria and a person who thinks they are Napoleon or a cat, but I didn't see how you dealt with this question. After all, there is no present amina (right?) to exempt a person from a commandment because in their opinion they are a cat. This is not similar to the question of what is an illness. There the question is what is good and what is bad, and that is subjective. But here the question is what corresponds to physical/biological reality, and in gender dysphoria, by its very definition, the feeling does not correspond to biological reality.
It is clear to me that you later argued that this is the question itself – whether one refers to sex or gender. But I ask how it differs from a person who truly and sincerely feels that he is a cat.
I explained exactly how it's different. Your argument can be directed against extreme queerness but not against sober queerness.
The question is not whether it corresponds to physical reality. The argument is that gender is disconnected from physical reality.
You explained that there is a set of characteristics of a gendered man and woman, and according to their combination, a person's position on the gender spectrum is determined. But this is true for everything. The question of whether a creature is a cat is also determined by its proximity to the Platonic cat, and theoretically it is possible for a creature to be borderline or even closer to the definition of another creature (for example, hybrids or genetic anomalies).
The difference is that in queer theories it is not about characteristics, but about personal experience. If it were about androgynous or tomtom, or even modern definitions of them that also include behavioral characteristics, I would understand the argument. But as long as it is about personal feelings only, even if completely true, I do not understand the difference between this and a person who thinks he is a cat (I am not talking about a psychotic person, but one who is aware that he is a biological person but feels like a cat).
If there is a creature that does indeed have elements of a cat, it should indeed be treated accordingly. I don't understand what this insistence is.
You are again mixing extreme queerness with soberness. This is what all the stubborn people do who decide to rule out the phenomenon a priori without being willing to listen.
If a person suddenly starts behaving like a cat: walking on all fours, howling and not speaking, and chasing mice, would you say he is a cat or a mentally ill person?
I think the column is not correct (but fascinating). You can delete the comment.
The version here is protected, the problem is only in email.
Regarding comment 1 regarding the partner, she can easily examine her attitude towards the rest of the world, whether she is interested in men or women…
indeed
If gender is separated from sex and a man can claim to be a woman, then why, for example, can't a Jew claim to be Korean? (Call it a race if you want.)
It always revolves around the same point. If the subject is separated from the object, you can also decide that you are 60 years old, in order to receive benefits from the state. No one will take it seriously, and that's not the case for trans people.
You don't always need conceptual analysis for simple things.
You can claim whatever you want. There are no restrictions on moving your lips. But claiming is not moving your lips but expressing an argument.
Indeed, it is not always necessary, but your fundamental misunderstanding shows that these are probably not such simple things. I bet you didn't understand even after I did the conceptual analysis.
Sorry, but I didn't see how you answered him. If a person suddenly starts acting like he's sixty (and not for biological reasons but psychological ones), will he be considered sixty for the purposes of receiving benefits by law and should we treat him as such?
Hahaha
As for how to call someone who defines himself differently than his body shows [as long as this tendency belongs to a few percent], it is indeed a matter of consideration and politeness perhaps.
But as for the normative questions you raised, it depends on each question about the body.
Is it right to let him compete in women's sports – No. It does not depend on consciousness but on body structure. And this person's body structure is male for all intents and purposes, and therefore it is not fair for him to compete under a woman's title.
Is it right for him to go into the women's restroom – The reason why the restrooms are separated, or that women sit in a separate place, is mainly for sexual reasons, so that there will be no mishaps of any kind. And if he is attracted to women, what does it matter if he identifies himself as a woman.
And by and large, lesbians should also go to the men's restroom, but that is impossible to do.
Regarding ‘You shall not wear’ The apparent prohibition is the hybridization that occurs between the person and his clothes. It turns out that if the person feels that these are the clothes that suit him, there is no prohibition in this.
I would be grateful if you could answer one simple question for me. If we accept the assumption that there is a fundamental separation between sex and gender, then someone whose gender is male who "feels" that he is female does not feel that his gender is female but that his gender is female, and if so, why should he have sex changes? And why, if we assume that his gender is female has inhibited internal feelings, should we assume that his gender has changed or should be changed? Isn't there a logical contradiction here between separating sex and gender and mixing them?
Because he wants his gender to be female too. I don't understand the question.
Is a priest who feels he is a Levite allowed to defile himself for the dead?
What do you say about such an argument:
The people accepted the Talmud as a formal source of authority when there was a fear that if we did not adhere to a Talmudic text, Judaism would not survive in exile. But today, surely that does not apply and is it even possible to exempt ourselves from this binding obligation?
Why is there no such fear today? The fear is not of the annihilation of the Jewish people but of the annihilation of Judaism. It exists today no less.
Why wasn't there concern hundreds of years before the Talmud was signed? How is the situation different from the situation today?
Regarding what you wrote here:
A person who has the ability to have children cannot neutralize it, regardless of whether he is a man or a woman. … The words are said about a trans person, that is, a man who undergoes surgery to become a woman. In a trans person, the prohibition is easier (since in terms of his gender he is a woman), and if it is a time of great stress, there is room for permission.
What do you think, whether it is a man or a woman, there is a rabbinic prohibition here, so how is it permitted?
I wrote that the prohibition of the rabbis can be permitted in times of distress and in places of great need.
I really liked the conceptual analysis, thank you. But it seems to me that there is a gap between it and the applied part.
You argued for sober queerness and against extreme queerness, meaning that a person who claims to be a woman according to his own eyes, without any definition of femininity, is just saying meaningless things. According to this, it is clear that such a person – extreme queer – would be considered a man from a halakhic perspective.
And this makes sense – If a person claims to be full, without meaning anything and without accepting the prevailing definition of fullness – he is just saying words and it is clear that we will not hold him accountable for this definition of fullness in the blessing of food.
It follows that the halakhic doubt is only about a moderate queer, meaning a person who claims to feel like a woman because indeed his character is similar to one degree or another to the prevailing character of women.
And according to this, the question arises – What is the rule for a man who has feminine traits, but does not identify as a woman?
That is, the real doubt is not whether to go by sex or by self-definition alone – that is extreme queerness, and that rejection – but whether to go by biological sex, or by gender, i.e. character. Therefore, doubt arises regarding every man with feminine traits (and vice versa), regardless of his personal feelings.
And then the answer seems clear – sex is relevant, because it is very unlikely to assume that the Torah asked him to classify men and women by traits, and to draw this line somewhere. I agree that it is likely that biological sex is just a sign, and character is probably the reason, but it seems to me that in this case the Torah intended that the sign determine, in order to create a clear division. Moreover, it is possible that in certain mitzvot the relevant factor is the social situation, such as what you brought up in the name of the Avodrah regarding raising children, which is often the responsibility of the woman, and social situation is often derived (especially once) from biological sex and not from character.
Moreover, if doubt does arise regarding every man with feminine traits, there is no reason to assume that the Sages were not familiar with this phenomenon, and therefore their words are supposed to be conclusive.
Am I missing something?
You are missing quite a bit.
First, an extreme queer is not a man but a doubter. You cannot learn from his words what he is.
A man with feminine traits is, according to this argument, a woman, regardless of what he declares himself to be.
Why is an extreme queer a doubter? If his gender is male, and his personality is male, what does the empty self-definition matter?
And if it turns out that a man with feminine traits is a woman, this is something that clearly existed in the days of the sages, and therefore we are supposed to be committed to them
For example, one can be satisfied if the definition "Gentile" refers to a person who works for God or a person who is evil; but it is clear that a person who is both a person who works for God and an evil person, and only calls himself a "Jew", is considered a Gentile.
I ask so that I can be clear
Did the rabbi allow a trans woman to have surgery in a time of need?
When did I allow it?
In the column here:
“A person who has the ability to have children cannot neutralize it, regardless of whether he is a man or a woman. … The words are said about a trans man, that is, a man who undergoes surgery to become a woman. In a trans man, the prohibition is easier (since in terms of his gender he is a woman), and if it is a time of great stress, there is room for permission”
So what's the question?
Can a trans person (who is originally a woman) have sex with a woman?
It depends on whether the prohibition of lesbian relations is based on sex or gender. Ostensibly, this explanation is based on sex (because marital relations are a physical matter), but there is room to argue that this is a definition of a relationship and not marital relations.
Therefore, there is room to be satisfied with this. Lesbian relations are simply a prohibition of the rabbis, and what is the rabbis' doubt. When there is distress (and this is often the case) there is room to permit.
My argument based on the ajm that I mentioned in the column should be attached as a branch.
Regarding the definition of disease and deviation.
I think the natural view is (and I'm not talking about definitions, but rather about a tendency that seems to me to be natural human), that disease and deviation are defined when two conditions are met:
A. It is a relatively rare phenomenon.
B. It is a phenomenon that results in significant harm (even if it also has benefits).
Therefore, for example:
The fact that when I don't eat I'm hungry and it harms my functioning, it is indeed a phenomenon with harm, but it is not rare. So it is not a disease.
The fact that a person has very good eyesight, it is a rare phenomenon, but it does not cause significant harm. So it is not a disease.
A person who is very tall, to a level that interferes with his conduct, harms his heart or his spine – it is a disease (or a similar name you give it. However, it is a negative phenomenon).
A person who, because of his relatively rare gender perception, has difficulty getting married or generally has difficulty socially – is a deviation (or disorder, or whatever you call a negative phenomenon).
By the same token, a single person who is unable to get married because he is looking for “what is not” or “what is almost not”, is a type of disorder.
And it's not just about definitions. This has implications, at least for our attitude: Do we pray that our son will not be like that.
Do we recommend that the person deal with the phenomenon, if possible.
Are we willing for such a group to define itself as normal.
I agree with almost every word except that harm is in the eye of the beholder and the beholder's business. You are not supposed to define for everyone what is a disease or deviation. If you think it is so – for health.
Are there no definite definitions of harm?
A significant shortening of life span is harm. A serious violation of one of life's basic needs is harm.
A person who is afraid to go out into the street – has serious damage to social behavior.
A person who thinks he is a fish – has serious damage to his understanding of reality.
A person who has no meaning in his life – has harm.
A person who is forced to spend his entire life chasing substances to which he is addicted – has harm.
A person who cannot give birth, whether because of physical injury or because he has difficulty leading a life with a woman – has harm.
No?
There are issues of ambiguity and androgyny regarding the obligation to perform the mitzvahs that time has caused,
and it does not seem that Misha linked his obligation to his feeling whether he feels male or female.
Because the Talmud assumes that it goes together. The Talmud makes no reference to a person's feelings.
What did the idiot or the androgynous feel (by the way, this still exists today, and one might ask what it feels like)?
Did he feel that he was a doubter?
I don't know. I also assume that not everyone feels the same way.
Perhaps it can be said that the Talmud did not think that feelings change anything in relation to the definition of man or woman. There are many definitions that the Talmud did not address and we assume that the positive definition it defined is the one that determines, and not those that were not mentioned. After all, it cannot be said that people did not have feelings at that time and therefore the definition that was defined is the one that determines. In addition, since when do we assume that feelings are so significant? In other halachic areas, will we also treat feelings or emotions in the same way?
I can't say everything. But in my opinion, if the Talmud was aware of what we know today, it is unlikely that it would have preferred physiology over feeling. It is much more likely that feeling is the determining factor. But in their opinion, there is no such thing as a state of dysphoria.
Of course, there were feelings back then, but no man would attribute to himself the feelings of a woman. You need a concept for that.
What do you think we know today that would have caused the Sages to prefer feeling over physiology? That there was a minor percentage of the population today who felt something different about their gender. You are making an argument that cannot be proven and on the basis of which you want to establish a different halakhic approach. Why not assume that just as the Sages knew about opposite sexual orientation and yet established a clear halakhic rule despite people's feelings, so they also established a halakhic rule on the issue of the relationship between men and women. Why is your assumption more well-founded than mine?
It is not knowledge but awareness.
Sexual orientation is an objective fact. Gender feeling is a mental state that I cannot know about except by virtue of the report of someone who felt it.
My argument is better than yours because you assume that everyone lies, which is unlikely.
Where did I claim that everyone lies? My claim is very clear, just as sexual orientation is a fact that the sages knew about even though it was probably not common, so is gender dysphoria, and yet the sages established clear halakhah on the subject. Even though anyone who claims to feel like a woman despite being a man physiologically is not lying, the sages still established halakhic definitions. You claim that the sages did not know something and if they did know for sure they would prefer the feeling as a definition, where does this clear statement come from? That was my first question in the previous response, which I still don't think you answered. What do we know today that would change the sages' statement? The small number of people who do not lie about their gender?
In addition, your assumption that the sober queer theory is equivalent to a physiological determination needs clarification. The definitions that man and woman have are social definitions or scientific facts. What defines a man or a woman beyond their biological sex, which is a fact? Why does the moment someone who is physiologically a woman feels more masculine because of social determinations, does it change anything? It's just a feeling! However true it may be, how exactly is it equivalent to a clear scientific fact?
A. Regarding the prohibition of castration, I don't understand where such a light hand on the trigger comes from ” – I have an idea, so it was a rabbinical doubt, and it is permissible’.
Have you forgotten the concept of ‘lack of knowledge’ that is not lightened even by the rabbinical?
B. The operation is the biggest ‘not to wear’, and this is not a reason for a recitation, but rather the definition of the prohibition, and if they prohibited shaving the hair of the armpits and the pubic area, then such an operation is permissible.
With a little philosophy in Shekel, you turned the entire section on the holy things into a prohibition only if you feel the opposite of what you are doing, but perhaps according to biblical criticism, it was added by mistake, and in truth, the sages added it out of their own accord and determined it according to an arbitrary determination in order to harm people with different tendencies. You went short on the abominations of the Gentiles, at least according to those who think it is forbidden.
Just to clarify
In the conceptual analysis you present sex and gender as separate categories, but in practice many of those who experience gender dysphoria actually focus on the body and not on character – feel stuck in the wrong body, etc. –
What does a "wrong" body mean? A body that does not match one's inner feelings, that is, one's gender.
But if gender does not belong to sex then what does that mean?
That is, there is an assumption here that there is a fundamental dependence here
No. Because people feel a mismatch between sex and gender, this is defined as a psychiatric problem. But if a person is not bothered by it, then they do not have any psychiatric problem. People's distress does not determine reality and our definitions of it. It may be that it bothers them because social conventions link sex to gender (after all, no one denies that there is a correlation). And it may be that it is just their distress. So what?
According to what you wrote, it turns out that there is a kula in the prohibitions of the rabbis in situations of doubt, but in the prohibitions of the Torah in situations of apparent doubt, one must be stricter according to both sex and gender. That is, a woman whose gender is male (even if for certain reasons she wants to remain a woman) is forbidden to wear women's clothing lest she be a man, and is forbidden to wear men's clothing lest she be a woman. She must wear gender-neutral clothing.
If you doubt, then you are right. It is not my innovation that Torah doubts the wording and the rabbinic wording. The question is whether you have a doubt. I also wrote that a Sabra and a time of stress can allow for sufficiencies.
You have clarified the difference between queerness and a mental definition, but you have not sufficiently explained your position: Why would a mental state define a social state at all? What exactly is it based on? It has no equal in any other social division such as sector, ethnicity or age. Even if a mental state has weight in the definition, it is not everything. In my understanding, gender is first and foremost a social and cultural reference to both sexes.
And another important clarification as a follow-up to this: that person thinks that his mental state is that of a woman, but he has never been a woman to confirm this report of his… I have no way to judge him, but he himself has no way and we will probably never know what his true mental state is.
I don't understand where this discussion is going. What do you gain from your conventionalist proposal? You make baseless assumptions, according to which personal experience has no positive content (extreme queerness) and retreat to social conventions. In other words, you are essentially joining extreme queerness and adopting something empty and arbitrary just like that. You could just as easily have determined this based on the number of shoes or the letters of the name. What do you expect me to say about that, except that I disagree?
Can you respond a little more gently?? That's unpleasant. Face to face you wouldn't respond like that, not even a fraction of that. A real split personality (not mental)
What's unpleasant/delicate here? I answered completely matter-of-factly.
On the subject itself: Mental reporting is the most arbitrary thing in the world. That's why I suggested that it be a weighting of several factors together (not like you said I said), as in any definition. Extreme queerness is a one-sided view. The other option is to really state that sex determines gender, that's the most arbitrary thing in the world. Mental reporting can never reflect absolute truth, certainly not in this area.
Given that the halakhic attitude towards a person is determined by gender and not by sex, I completely accept the logic you chose to run with.
But it does not seem right to me to base the halakhic attitude towards a person on gender, but only on sex.
But that is already a normative discussion.
Cheers.
The division between two characteristics that in the past were not distinguished in their separation and today are is fundamental, but it seems to me that when making it, one should examine whether the division we propose is relevant or not.
That is, one can divide divisions to infinity and start arguing about whether the particular law depends on this or that, and therefore one should first explain that the division is a good and appropriate division, and only then argue about it. In the context of the article, in my opinion, human feeling is irrelevant to the analysis of the picture of reality, and just as it does not affect the analysis of reality in general… all reference to feelings as defining reality, and especially on the subject of sex, is related to a new and non-objective culture – right?
(I apologize for not reading all the comments if this has already been commented on)
Rabbi Michi, I didn't get to the bottom of your point. Since you are confusing them with the fact that there is a definition of gender, and it is impossible for the definition to be according to someone who feels this way, because it is a definition devoid of content (extreme queerness). So we must now discuss what the definition of gender is. And as long as we don't have a clear definition of a specific set that defines gender, how will we discuss this question?
I have already been asked and answered. There are concepts that are difficult to give an explicit definition to, and yet we all understand that they exist. An explicit verbal definition is not a condition for discussion. All of our basic concepts do not have such a definition.
Dear Rabbi Michael, thank you from the bottom of my heart for the respectful and detailed discussion. I am honored that you took the time to read my words, review them, and share your substantive response. I will try to respond as soon as possible. (The only thing that makes it a little difficult for me to respond is that, after all, most of the criticism is based on a fundamental disagreement between us about initial assumptions regarding the boundaries of halakhic discourse.)
Rabbi Issachar Shalom. I would appreciate any feedback. I think that even the basic assumptions and boundaries of the discourse can be discussed.
Ostensibly, if we assume that gender is a feeling that develops and is not innate, then it is also very reasonable to assume that in a healthy person, the sense of self-gender should develop in accordance with their sex and if this does not happen, this is a deviation from the natural path of development (and if it were not for Demastafina, I would say that the same should be said in relation to sexual attraction, which should develop in a certain path and if this does not happen, there is a change from the natural order and, like any developmental malfunction, it should not be given a separate and equal status).
Perhaps it is not necessary to say so, but it is much more evident than assuming (as every queer assumes) that a baby is born with a fixed gender perception, or that there are more than 2 possible genders and so on, assumptions that are much less probable than the assumption that if the sense of gender did not develop in accordance with sex, there is a disruption and malfunction in the natural system that was supposed to produce this.
Once we assume that this is a malfunction in a natural system, like any other malfunction (such as splitting, split personality, autism, etc.), it is easier to insist that the classification as male or female should be determined by sex, regardless of the person's internal feelings.