Could There Be an Obligation for a Person to Kill Himself? (Column 471)
With God’s help
Disclaimer: This post was translated from Hebrew using AI (ChatGPT 5 Thinking), so there may be inaccuracies or nuances lost. If something seems unclear, please refer to the Hebrew original or contact us for clarification.
A few months ago I was asked, in the Q&A, about a person who committed an offense that carries the death penalty: is he obligated—or perhaps permitted—to commit suicide? The discussion broadened considerably, and I would like here to lay out the picture in greater detail.
A distinction between two questions
One can pose this question in two different situations:
- When there is a court (beit din) that has handed down his sentence, ostensibly the question does not arise: the court will execute him. Still, one can ask whether he may flee, or—if the court did not carry out the sentence—whether he is obligated or permitted to do so himself. A hypothetical that illustrates this is a case in which the court sentenced someone to death, and then semikhah ceased and the courts were abolished. He now has a valid death sentence upon him but no one to carry it out. In such a case, is there permission or an obligation for the person to kill himself?
- When he committed an offense warranting death but the court did not sentence him—for example, because there were no valid witnesses or the warning (hatra’ah) was lacking (though he himself knows he was fully intentional). A more likely scenario is in our times, when there are no ordained courts (semukhim) able to adjudicate capital cases. Suppose someone today committed an offense carrying the death penalty, and for the sake of discussion assume there even were witnesses and a warning, but there is no ordained court that can try him. May he, or perhaps must he, kill himself?
Below I will focus on the first question, but first a remark about the second.
Permission to kill oneself without a court ruling
These two questions look similar, but there is a decisive difference between them. The accepted halakhic principle is that as long as a court has not sentenced you to death, you are not liable to death. Even if you desecrated Shabbat with valid witnesses and a warning, and you yourself know that you were fully intentional, as long as the court has not handed down its ruling, you do not bear a liability of death. If so, then certainly you have no obligation—and likely not even permission—to kill yourself.
This principle is presented clearly in Gilyon HaShas, Makkot 5a (s.v. “Tos. s.v. ve-khen etc.”)[1], and I will not delve into it here. I will only note that this was the background to the attempt to renew semikhah in Safed in the sixteenth century (as described by Maharalbah, the chief opponent of renewing semikhah, in his “Kuntres HaSemikhah” at the end of his responsa). The primary argument of the initiators was the need to lash those who had converted under the Inquisition, thereby exempting them from karet, in light of the Mishnah in Makkot 23a:
All those liable to karet who were flogged are exempted from their karet, as it is said, “Your brother shall be dishonored before your eyes”; once he has been flogged, he is as your brother—these are the words of Rabbi Ḥananiah ben Gamliel.
In any event, it was clear to them that without ordained courts administering lashes, the offenders were not exempted from karet. Lashes of halakhic import are only those administered by a court after its ruling.
So much for the second question. We remain with the first: when a court did rule and for some reason cannot or does not wish to carry out the ruling, is there an obligation upon the person to put himself to death? To that end, I will begin with a short discussion of the doctrine of the rodef (“pursuer”).
A ‘reversed’ pursuer
The Gemara in Sanhedrin 82a discusses the rule “One who has relations with an Aramean woman—zealots may strike him,” and in that context brings the following dictum:
It was also stated: Rabbah bar bar Ḥana said in the name of Rabbi Yoḥanan: One who comes to ask [whether to act]—we do not instruct him. Moreover, if Zimri separated and Pinḥas killed him, Pinḥas would be liable for him; but if the roles were reversed and Zimri killed Pinḥas, he would not be liable for him, for [Pinḥas] is a pursuer.
The Gemara says that if Zimri had killed Pinḥas, he would be exempt, for Pinḥas has the status of a rodef. This is a significant novelty: although Pinḥas performed a mitzvah, and God Himself praises him for it and grants him His covenant of peace, he nevertheless has the status of a pursuer, and the pursued (the sinner and adulterer) has the right to defend himself against him. I will note that the language of the Gemara implies an exemption from punishment (“he is not executed for him”) rather than an outright permission.
Rabbi Meir Dan Plotsky, in his Kli Ḥemda at the end of Parashat Balak, sharpens this novelty further. There is a well-known limitation in the laws of the pursuer: the rule of “he could save [the victim] by one of his limbs.” The law of the pursuer applies when I see Reuven pursuing Shimon to kill him. In that case, I am obligated to kill Reuven to save Shimon. Of course, Shimon, the pursued, may (and perhaps must?) kill him as well. But if Shimon can be saved in another way—i.e., without killing the pursuer—there is no permission to kill him. For example, if I can injure one of his limbs so that the pursuer remains alive but the pursuit ceases, I have no permission to kill him. This is the rule of “he could save him by one of his limbs.” In the Kli Ḥemda there, he asks: why was Zimri permitted to kill Pinḥas by the law of the pursuer—after all, he could stop sinning, and then Pinḥas would not kill him. In other words, he could save himself without killing Pinḥas, and we have seen that in such a case there is no permission to kill the pursuer. He brings a fascinating answer (in the name of the Rebbe of Ger): Zimri indeed could stop sinning and thereby save himself, but he does not owe it to Pinḥas to stop sinning. A person has the right to continue sinning if he so chooses, and if Pinḥas threatens to kill him, Pinḥas has the status of a pursuer and Zimri is permitted to preempt him and kill him.
It is important to stress that Zimri’s “right” to sin does not mean he is not committing an offense, or that God will not call him to account. The argument is that this is a matter between him and God and does not concern Pinḥas. I will frame it this way: in a regular pursuer case, when I come to kill the pursuer, he can claim against me that I have no right to kill him because I can injure his leg, and that suffices to save the pursued. He is, in effect, arguing that I must injure his leg to save a life and am forbidden to kill him. But in Zimri’s case, if and when he turned to kill Pinḥas, Pinḥas cannot demand of him to stop sinning to save Pinḥas’s life. If Zimri decides not to stop sinning, that is his affair alone and not Pinḥas’s, and therefore Pinḥas’s threat confers upon him the status of a pursuer. The fact that he could stop sinning does not transform the situation into one of “he could save him by one of his limbs.”
In the past I compared this to a case where someone demands a shekel from me on pain of death. May I kill him? Certainly. Why? After all, I could give him a shekel and be saved! Is the prevention of the loss of a single shekel worth a human life?! The answer is that I have a right to my shekel and am not obligated to give it to him. Therefore he cannot demand that I hand over the shekel in order to save his life (so that I need not kill him). I am entitled to keep my shekel and not give it to him, and if he threatens me—that confers upon him the status of a pursuer. The novelty of the Kli Ḥemda is that the right to sin—although it is a forbidden act—at the legal level is similar to the right to keep my shekel and not give it up.
In passing I will note that, unlike the regular pursuer law, it is quite clear that other people are not obligated to kill Pinḥas as a pursuer—though perhaps they would have permission to do so. Even regarding Zimri, it is very likely that the Gemara speaks only of permission and not of obligation. If so, this is a special pursuer law: there is permission to kill the pursuer but no obligation. It is possible that this peculiarity stems from Zimri’s ability to stop sinning. There is certainly no obligation to kill the pursuer where killing him is not necessary to save the pursued. Even if he has a “right” to sin, I am certainly not obligated to defend that right. Moreover, since Zimri had the option to stop sinning, it may be that others would even be forbidden to kill Pinḥas. The novelty is that although there is a way to be saved without killing Pinḥas, the pursuer law still applies and there is permission to continue sinning and not to use that option. But that is, of course, insufficient to create an obligation to kill Pinḥas.
The Mishneh LaMelekh’s questions
The Mishneh LaMelekh (Hil. Rotzeaḥ 1:14) discusses, in light of this Gemara, several similar cases:
“One who sees a pursuer after his fellow to kill him… and he could save [him] but did not save—he has neglected a positive commandment… I was uncertain about an inadvertent killer with respect to whom the blood-avenger has permission to kill him: if the killer exerted himself and killed the blood-avenger, is he executed for him? It seems that he is not executed, and support for my words is [from the case of] Zimri, about whom we say (Sanhedrin 82a), ‘If the roles were reversed and Zimri killed Pinḥas, he is not executed for him’; and I still do not have a conclusive proof of this.”
He is unsure whether an inadvertent killer may kill his blood-avenger as a pursuer, similar to Zimri’s status. Note that regarding the inadvertent killer, the halakha is that the blood-avenger is not obligated to kill him: it is permission, or perhaps merely an exemption from punishment (see Rambam, Hil. Rotzeaḥ 5:9–10). It is therefore unclear what the Mishneh LaMelekh’s uncertainty is. If Pinḥas, who is fulfilling “zealots strike him”—which is certainly not merely permission but a mitzvah, or at least a matter of value—and even so Zimri may kill him under the pursuer rule, then all the more so with the blood-avenger, where there is no mitzvah and perhaps not even permission; there it would seem obvious that there is permission to kill him as a pursuer. What, then, is the source of the doubt expressed at the end of the Mishneh LaMelekh’s words?
Indeed, in the commentary Zayit Raʿanan to Yalkut Shimoni (Masei, §2988) it is written that there is a special scriptural decree that forbids the killer from killing the blood-avenger. He brings a source from the verse “and the blood-avenger finds him” (Num. 35:27): to exclude “[if] he—the killer—finds the blood-avenger.” This is a rather dubious derashah, and it seems more likely that it arises from the very permission the Torah gives the blood-avenger to kill him. In other words, the blood-avenger possesses a right to kill the killer, not merely permission; once it is a conferred right, there is no permission to infringe it, and therefore the pursuer rule does not apply here.
Afterward, the Mishneh LaMelekh is also uncertain about a pursuer who kills the rescuer:
“I was also uncertain about a pursuer after his fellow to kill him, and likewise a pursuer after a forbidden relation, where one may save [the victim] even by taking [the pursuer’s] life: if the pursuer exerted himself and killed the rescuer, is he executed for him? It seems that in these cases he is executed, for only regarding Zimri—where Pinḥas had no mitzvah but merely permission—do we say: ‘If the roles were reversed and Zimri killed Pinḥas, he is not executed’; but a pursuer after his fellow or after a forbidden relation—since there is a mitzvah to save [the victim], as our master [Rambam] wrote—if the pursuer killed the rescuer, he is executed for him. So too it may be deduced from the words of Rivo [the Ravyah] in Meisharim (n. 31, part 2): ‘If the adulterer turned and killed the zealot, even at the time of the act, he is not executed, for the zealot was [legally] a pursuer, since he is not obligated to kill him—he has only permission.’ Thus he made the matter depend on the fact that he is not obligated to kill him but only has permission. And the inadvertent killer is like the one who had relations with an Aramean woman, for the blood-avenger has permission to kill him, not a mitzvah—consider this carefully.”
Here he concludes that the criterion is whether the would-be killer is acting under permission or obligation (a mitzvah). If it is only permission—then when the target kills him, he is exempt; but if it is a mitzvah—then he is liable.
A court agent as a pursuer
When I studied these words of the Mishneh LaMelekh, I wondered why he does not raise the same question regarding a court’s agent. The very same question would seem to arise regarding a condemned man who wants to kill the court agent who has come to execute him—treating him as a pursuer. According to his conclusion the law is clear: the court agent is performing a mitzvah, and therefore the condemned person who kills him is executed. But it is not clear to me why, at the stage of the question, the Mishneh LaMelekh did not see fit to raise it also with respect to the court agent. It seems to me that it was obvious to the Mishneh LaMelekh already at the question stage that a court agent certainly does not have the status of a pursuer. This is before the permission/mitzvah criterion that appears in his conclusion.
Why was this so obvious to him? It seems the explanation lies in the obligation upon the court and its agent to execute those liable to death. The obligation to kill one who has been sentenced to death is upon the entire public. The court is the public’s agent for this purpose, charged with carrying that public obligation into practice. The court agent is the agent of the court and, through it, the agent of the entire public. If so, the obligation to kill one who has been sentenced to death rests upon the entire public, which includes each individual—and in particular the condemned man himself (for he too is part of the public). Even if he is not obligated to kill himself—perhaps because that is an excessive demand, or because a private person is not supposed to kill him in place of the court (for reasons of legal and social order)—he is certainly at least expected to cooperate and allow the authorized institutions (the court and its agents) to carry out this task. It seems to me that this is why it was obvious to the Mishneh LaMelekh from the outset that the court agent cannot have the status of a pursuer. The reason is not that the agent is performing a mitzvah (for the permission/mitzvah distinction appears only in his resolution), but that the one obligated in this mitzvah includes the condemned man himself. By contrast, the blood-avenger is not the public’s agent, and neither is Pinḥas (there is no obligation upon the public to kill the one who had relations with an Aramean woman); thus in those cases there is room for doubt. As noted, his conclusion is that when it is a mitzvah, there too the pursuer rule does not apply.
In light of this, we should consider briefly the regular pursuer case. We saw that the Mishneh LaMelekh makes the rescuer’s immunity depend on the fact that he is fulfilling a mitzvah. But according to my approach, we could say more: the obligation to save the pursued rests upon the entire public, and therefore the obligation to kill the pursuer rests upon him as well. It is therefore clear that he has no permission to kill the rescuer, for the rescuer is acting also as his agent—much like the court agent (and I argued that this is how to understand the Mishneh LaMelekh himself, as this was my explanation for why he had no doubt about the court agent). Not for nothing do some sources view the pursuer law as carrying out a death sentence upon a murderer (see Afikei Yam, vol. 2, §40).
However, upon further reflection there is a distinction to be drawn. The obligation to save is an obligation upon each individual separately, and therefore it is difficult to say that the rescuer is acting as the pursuer’s agent. The rescuer acts on his own behalf. By contrast, in the case of the court agent, we saw that he acts as the agent of the entire public, which includes the condemned man; therefore there it was obvious from the outset that the pursuer rule cannot apply to the court agent.
A hierarchy of ‘pursuers’
The upshot of our analysis is that there is a hierarchy among different “pursuer” cases regarding permission to kill them (or at least regarding exemption from punishment for killing them):
- A regular pursuer is committing a transgression. Such a person may—and must—be killed.
- Regarding the one who had relations with an Aramean woman—the rule that zealots may strike him is not an obligation but a permission (or a value). Thus a special novelty of the Gemara is required to say that even here the pursuer law applies and there is permission to kill him.
- Regarding the blood-avenger—this is a right he has to kill the inadvertent killer, and therefore it is not exactly like the Aramean case, which is mere permission. Still, the Mishneh LaMelekh’s conclusion is that they are analogous, and one who kills the blood-avenger is exempt under the pursuer law.
- If there is an obligation upon a specific individual (and not upon the entire public) to kill so-and-so, then so-and-so cannot preempt and kill that individual (for the obligation that he die is not upon himself, but upon that individual). It is hard to think of such a case, but if with the blood-avenger it had been a mitzvah to kill the inadvertent killer, that would have been such an obligation.
- Regarding the rescuer—the obligation upon each individual (but not a public obligation) is to kill the pursuer; therefore here, clearly, the pursuer rule does not apply, and one who kills the rescuer is executed for it. This is the Mishneh LaMelekh’s novelty.
- Regarding the court agent—this is an obligation upon the public (which includes the condemned man). Here, the pursuer rule does not apply even without the Mishneh LaMelekh’s criterion. Hence he does not even entertain doubt in this case.
Is there an obligation upon one liable to death to kill himself?
Recall that our discussion concerns whether there is an obligation or permission for a person liable to death to kill himself. We have now seen that, in principle, yes: the obligation to kill him rests upon the entire public and, in particular, upon himself. Usually the court will fulfill this obligation, and therefore the question does not arise. But it does arise when we ask whether the condemned may kill the court agent as a pursuer. We saw that this agent is also his own agent, since the obligation to kill him rests upon him as well; thus the agent does not have the status of a pursuer.
I will note that I am dealing here only with the first question above—that is, where there was a court ruling that obligated him to death. This is the place to note that in the case where the court ruled and then semikhah and the courts ceased, so that the condemned bears a death sentence but there is no one to carry it out, it seems that even according to my reasoning he is not obligated to kill himself. After all, capital punishments are no longer practiced in fact, and just as the public is not obligated to execute him, so too he, in particular, is not obligated to do so.
[One could perhaps discuss whether there would be permission for anyone—and for him himself—to kill him in place of the court, similar to what we find concerning a seducer to idolatry (Deut. 13:10): “Your hand shall be first upon him to put him to death, and afterward the hand of all the people” (see also Mishnah, Makkot 1:10).]
Such an act appears in Bereishit Rabbah, parashah 65, §22 (my thanks to Y.D. who brought this example in the above thread):
“And there arose a man ‘Tzerorot’; he was the sister’s son of R. Yose ben Yoʿezer, the man of Tzeridah, and he was riding a horse on Shabbat. He passed before the gallows on his way to be executed. He said to him: ‘See my horse, which my master causes me to ride; and see your horse, which your Master makes you ride [i.e., you are led to execution].’ He said to him: ‘If thus it is for those who anger Him, how much more so for those who do His will!’ He said to him: ‘Has a person done His will more than you?’ He said to him: ‘And if thus it is for those who do His will, how much more so for those who anger Him!’ The matter entered him like the venom of a serpent. He went and fulfilled upon himself the four modes of capital punishment of the court—stoning, burning, decapitation, and strangulation. What did he do? He brought a beam and fixed it in the ground and tied a cord to it, and arranged wood and surrounded them with a wall of stones and made a bonfire before it, and he stuck the sword in the middle, and kindled the fire beneath the wood beneath the stones, and he hung himself from the beam and was strangled. The fire came forward; the cord snapped; he fell into the fire; the sword came before him; and the wall collapsed upon him, and he was burned. R. Yose ben Yoʿezer of Tzeridah dozed and saw his bier flying in the air. He said: ‘In a brief hour he has preceded me to the Garden of Eden.’”
We see that a person who killed himself when he was liable to death merits the Garden of Eden. It may be, however, that there it was a special decision due to the specific circumstances in which the killing was needed. For example, perhaps there was concern that the public would disparage the prohibition of Shabbat or disbelieve that these infractions carry the death penalty, and therefore the man “Tzerorot” decided to act. Something similar appears in the famous midrash that the wood-gatherer [on Shabbat] intended for the sake of Heaven (see Tosafot, s.v. “afilu,” Bava Batra 119b). If so, we cannot derive from here that a person is obligated, or even permitted, to kill himself in ordinary circumstances.
Socratic implications
Another implication of this analysis concerns the condemned person’s permission to escape his punishment. In Plato’s dialogue Crito, we find the well-known story of Socrates, who was sentenced to death by his fellow citizens for impiety and for corrupting the youth (he would arouse doubts among the populace regarding fundamental principles). While he sat in prison awaiting execution, his disciples tried to convince him to flee and save his life. This was a punishment that, in his view, was certainly unjust and undeserved, and yet Socrates refused. He said that the law had sentenced him to death, and he must cooperate and allow them to carry out the sentence.[2]
Socrates explains there that as a citizen he is party to a social contract of obligation to the law. However, even if one is obligated to the law, this does not explain why one should sacrifice his life unnecessarily. There is no reason why the obligation to the law should not yield to the value of life. It seems that his implicit assumption was stronger: the obligation to uphold the law rests upon the entire public, and in particular upon him as a citizen of Athens. Therefore, the obligation to kill him rests upon him as well, and thus he is forbidden to frustrate the execution of that law by escaping.[3] Once the law has sentenced him to death, the value of his life lapses—also in his own view. If I am correct in this interpretation, then the logic is quite similar to what I presented above.
In Bavli Ḥagigah 16b we find a similar story about Shimon ben Shetaḥ and Yehuda ben Tabbai (the third “pair” of leaders):
“Who is the tanna of that which the sages taught? Rabbi Yehuda ben Tabbai said: ‘May I see consolation [i.e., may I die] if I did not execute a conspiring witness, to remove from the hearts of the Sadducees who would say: Conspiring witnesses are not executed until the defendant has been executed.’ Shimon ben Shetaḥ said to him: ‘May I see consolation if you did not spill innocent blood, for the sages said: Conspiring witnesses are not executed until both [witnesses] are found to be conspirers; and they are not flogged until both are conspirers; and they do not pay money until both are conspirers.’ Immediately Yehuda ben Tabbai accepted upon himself not to teach halakhah except in the presence of Shimon ben Shetaḥ. All the days of Yehuda ben Tabbai he would prostrate himself upon the grave of that executed man, and a voice would be heard. The people thought it was the voice of the executed man; he said to them: ‘It is my voice. Know that tomorrow he will die and no voice will be heard.’ Rav Aḥa son of Rava said to Rav Ashi: ‘But perhaps he appeased him [the executed man], or the case was brought again for judgment?’”
The continuation appears in Yerushalmi Sanhedrin 6:3:
“Shimon ben Shetaḥ’s hands were hot [to execute justice]. A group of scoffers came and said: ‘Let us give counsel—let us testify about his son, and he will execute him.’ They testified against him, and his sentence was concluded. When he went out to be executed, they said: ‘Master, we are liars—his father is seeking to reverse [the verdict].’ He said to him: ‘Father, if you seek to bring deliverance through your hands, make me as a threshold [and carry out the sentence].’”
Those scoffers knew that Shimon ben Shetaḥ was “hot” to carry out the law. They decided to testify falsely against his son, and indeed his sentence was concluded. When he was taken out to be executed, it became clear that the testimony was false, and Shimon ben Shetaḥ thought to annul the sentence. His son asked him to carry it out nonetheless, so as not to undermine the credibility of the halakhic judicial system. This appears to be a truly Socratic act.
But upon further reflection, it is not exactly like Socrates’s deed. There is no statement here that an erroneous ruling is binding and must be carried out. In the Talmud it is presented as conduct beyond the letter of the law due to a time of need (concern for undermining the judicial system). By Socrates’s lights, he should request to be executed in any case, regardless of the circumstances, because that is the formal law even if substantively it is clearly wrong and unjust.[4] Moreover, since these are special circumstances, it is clear that Shimon ben Shetaḥ’s son was not obligated to do this. It was a permission, not an obligation—unlike Socrates.
The conclusion is that the Socratic approach is not truly accepted in halakhah. If it is clear to me that the sentence passed upon me is false, I am certainly permitted to flee and prevent its execution. My obligation is to uphold the law when it is truly the law. But there is no obligation to sacrifice one’s life to uphold an incorrect ruling—unless special circumstances prevail that justify such self-sacrifice. And even then, it is likely a permission rather than an obligation.
A closing remark
In passing I will note that in the thread above there was a link to an article by Shai O. Wozner, “The Offense of Escape from Custody,” which discusses this matter at length. I commented there that, as far as I saw, he does not bring primary sources and lacks conceptual analysis; he relies mainly on secondary sources. In my opinion he should have discussed it in light of the story of Shimon ben Shetaḥ’s son, the story in Bereishit Rabbah cited above, the inference from the Mishneh LaMelekh mentioned above, and more, and of course also addressed the fundamental theoretical basis of this matter—namely, the basic legal obligation upon every citizen to uphold and carry out the law, and in particular the law that sentences him himself (to death, prison, etc.).[5]
[1] He does leave the Tosafot there in need of clarification; it would seem that Tosafot did not accept this principle.
[2] See an interesting discussion here regarding truth versus the value of life in Plato and in Galileo.
[3] Of course one can further analyze, for this obligation itself could be said to yield to the value of life. It seems to me that this obligation overrides the value of life; otherwise the citizens themselves would also not be supposed to execute him.
[4] See my article on scriptural decrees (gezerat ha-katuv), where I noted a similar situation when a person is executed because his witnesses were later disqualified as close relatives. I argued there that a court that would execute him by virtue of a scriptural decree is a court unworthy of adjudication. On disqualification of relatives, see also my “Kuntres HaMigo.” See Ali Tamar on that Yerushalmi sugya, who noted that this is the message here; he wrote similarly regarding the stories of Achan mentioned earlier there and of Zechariah ben HaKatzav. See also Yafeh Mareh to the Yerushalmi there.
[5] This is another example of the importance of first-order halakhic analysis over second-order analysis. See also the end of Column 469 on this point.
You brought up an act here to contradict
At first you said in the raids that in a case where there is no ruling by the court, it is not defined at all that the person is liable to death, but only that the ruling requires it.
And finally you brought up the act in the universe of a man of bundles, in whose case there is certainly no ruling by the court, and if we can learn from this, then we can also learn from anyone who has committed an offense that requires him to die, that he can or should kill himself.
Not true. After all, I wrote that there were special circumstances involved. At most, your comment reinforces the claim that there is no normal leadership here.
Such an obligation would result in a "righteous" person who commits murder killing himself, and a wicked person not. And so the wicked will multiply in the world.
Thank you.
Question, if a court is convinced that a person has repented, is it obligated to put him to death?
https://mikyab.net/posts/4735
It is questionable whether a self-murder can even be considered a form of execution by a court of law, even when the judgment is complete and the Sahedri is in place.
Because killing by others is a more severe punishment, and the one who kills himself has not received the disgrace of being killed by others, which is (perhaps) part of the death penalty.
In a sidebar, we see that in countries where the death penalty is practiced, the authorities strive to prevent the condemned from committing suicide and from being "erased" from the sentence. Even in Israel, Eichmann was guarded 24 hours a day, lest, God forbid, he kill himself. Because the disgrace of being killed against his will by others is greater.
And who knows whether the one who kills himself is actually fulfilling the "hand of the whole people in the hereafter and the burning of evil from among you" when he himself is the evil that is burning from among others.
In a similar vein, Muslim jurists disagreed on whether a woman is permitted to be a "martyr." Sheikh Yusuf al-Qaradawi ruled that it is, while Sheikh Ahmed Yassin ruled that a woman is not permitted to be a "martyr," unless she has committed a serious offense that requires death, and then she can atone for her sin by martyrdom in a war of obligation.
With blessings, Shams Razel, Qubat an-Najma
According to the law, even as a "martyr," a woman must maintain her "honor as a daughter of a king within," and if she wants to blow herself up, She should do this inside her home.
On Independence Day 1982
To the question of Alexander the Great: ‘What shall a man do and live?’ the people of the Negev replied: ‘He shall kill himself’ (Tamid Lev). A man does not have to kill himself in order for his sins to be atoned for. His test is his ability to ‘kill himself’ by restraining his desires and lowering his pride.
It is very easy for a person to give up his life in a heroic act. It is much more difficult for a person to live a life of restraint and self-restraint. It is sometimes very difficult to part with habits and strong desires, but when you succeed in doing so, you are granted a long and happy life.
It is not for nothing that the symbol of freedom is the simple matzah, which is ‘poverty bread’, made from flour and water and kneaded in a simple manner. But the willingness to be content with little – is what prevents a person from becoming enslaved to nonsense, which will only get him into a lot of trouble.
Best regards, Hillel Feiner-Glossinos
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… ‘What shall a man do, and live?’, they answered…
It seems that it is difficult to explain that the condemned person himself has a mitzvah to kill himself, and thus it is found that the son qualifies his father with the mitzvah 🙂 It is also necessary to consider that someone who accidentally murdered his relative can be the blood avenger who kills himself. However, according to my own opinion, it is far from the case that a person would be required to be a "messenger of the court" to flog or kill himself.
With greetings, Otifron Nafishitim Loyik
And perhaps that is why the Torah did not allow punishment based on the testimony of a relative or on one's own testimony, because the Torah did not impose on a person something that directly contradicted his natural feelings. One exception was the Levites who were commanded to "kill each his brother and his relative", but this seems to be due to the seriousness of the sin of the calf, which was supposed to bring a decree of destruction on the entire nation, and the killing of relatives was intended to save the entire nation.
With greetings, An”
On Independence Day 5772
Since the halachic validity of Independence Day stems from the law of ‘Purim’ that the day of saving the public from death to life should be celebrated, it occurred to me that today it is also mitzvah to conduct investigations of ‘Purim-Tairah’, and therefore I believe that this is the place and time to raise an investigation regarding ‘a person's duty to personally observe the law of ‘Moridin and no Ma'lin’
And the explanation is for those who are obligated to observe the tenets of Talmudic law, but are not obligated to accept the beliefs and opinions of the Sages. And according to this system, there is room to say that a person is allowed not to believe in providence and the coming of the Messiah and the resurrection of the dead, but since according to Talmudic law it is commanded to observe the law of ‘Moridin and no transgressor’ – with those who hold these views, it seems that he is obligated to observe the law of ‘Moridin and no transgressor’ himself 🙂
And a great deal of study is needed in practice, and the stricter one is not to observe the law of ’Moridin; – it seems to me that he has something to rely on 🙂
With blessings, Shaltiel Chayef Blau-Weiss the Blue-Eyed
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The explanation is for those who say that a person must observe the laws of the Talmud on a practical level, but…
And of course, don't drink the wine itself, just like that.
It is precisely this opinion of the owners that made me distinguish between the obligation to actually kill oneself and the obligation not to prevent the execution of this by a messenger of the Lord.
On the 19th of Omer, one of the rabbis of the Budapest rabbinate, Rabbi Prof. Avraham Naftali Zvi Roth (later the rabbi of the State of Hesse), had already discussed this in the question of the Jewish Hospital in Budapest whether it was permissible to serve wine to a hospitalized patient who was publicly violating Shabbat. Rabbi Roth replied that the purpose of the prohibition of wine in the rabbinate was to separate themselves from it, and therefore he did not have to separate himself from himself.
According to this reasoning, it must be said that the condemned person himself cannot fulfill the commandment “and purge evil from your midst” by killing himself, since he will continue to be connected to himself in life and death. Only others who remain alive can separate themselves from him by killing him.
There is only one way in which the sinner can purge evil from his midst, and that is through repentance. And according to the opinion of the Marathas of the Law, a complete repentance also exempts from death by the court ” It must be said that the condemned person himself, who knows that he has repented with all his heart, is thereby relieved of the death penalty, and only the court and its emissaries who were not convinced of the sincerity of his repentance – are obligated to continue carrying out the sentence, but he himself, who knows that he has repented with all his heart – is not permitted to carry out the sentence.
Regarding the prohibition against preventing a court emissary from carrying out the sentence. This is derived from a person's general duty to fulfill ‘and do whatever he directs’, and in general a person's duty to accept the discipline of the court – includes the duty not to hinder and delay the court emissary..
With blessings, Shaltiel Chaim Blau-Weiss the Chaloni
Beautiful. I didn't know. I once wrote this argument itself as a basis for permitting the drinking of wine itself. Since he has already passed away, I will bless him in his name and issue him with a mandatory blessing: Baruch, who, in my opinion, directed the expansion.
Since Rabbi Avraham Naftali Zvi (Ernest) Roth fled Hungary for Germany during the 1956 uprising, it must be assumed that his response to the Jewish Hospital in Budapest regarding the provision of wine to the mashk”av was given before 1956, which is to say: before you were born.
Some of his writings appear in the catalog of the National Library, which is on the Internet, and there are listed the years of his life (1908-19919). He was married to my father's sister, Prof. David Shmuel Levinger, the late, who perished in the Holocaust, and married a second time to a convert of German origin, whom he recognized as the rabbi of the Frankfurt am Main community and the Hesse state. After his death, his rich Torah library was transferred to the Rabbi Kook Institute.
With blessings, Yours faithfully
On the website ‘Din’, Rabbi Shmuel Baruch Genut answered the question ‘Can a Jew who does not observe Shabbat – drink wine that he himself has touched’, and cited, among other things, the opinion of Rabbi Feinstein that the prohibition of drinking wine that has been touched by a mahsh–v is a custom and we do not find a custom not to let him drink wine that he himself has touched. Rabbi Kelitz also wrote that since the prohibition of touching a mahsh–v with wine is a fine, it does not belong to him to require him to distance himself. However, the opinion of Rabbi Klopf, Avd Bachicha, is that it is not a fallacy and the wine itself is also prohibited.
With blessings, Rabbi
A. The Gemara in Zimri and the Malam Ge'ol al-Damid deal with the punishment if the pursued turns around and kills the pursuer, he is not killed, but it is very possible that they are forbidden to turn around and there is only no punishment, such as the one who commits one of the gravest crimes for the sake of life, which is forbidden but not punished. Therefore, it seems that according to the law, even the one who kills a court emissary is not killed for it, as is the case for the one who commits one of the gravest crimes for the sake of life. From the wording in the column, it is not entirely clear to me whether you are linking the punishment to the prohibition. Could you please clarify? And do you think (not just the Malam's opinion) that the one who kills a court emissary is killed for it more than the one who commits a gravest crime for the sake of life, and why?
B. The explanation of the shekel can be understood from the perspective of a categorical-consequential command, which clearly states that the general rule must be a permit to kill for the shekel, otherwise the world's correction would be nullified, and there is no doubt that a good and righteous supreme legislator would legislate in this way. But in the matter of Zimri, there is no point or smell in it that Zimri needs to move his hands in a certain way in order to save one of Pinchas' limbs, but does not have to move his body in a different way in order to retire. If you connect the two, then you see the matter of the shekel as something deontological in its own right, even without regard to the consequentialism hidden in the general rule, and that is how you also perceive the considerations of territory that you defined in Maka (in my opinion, this is wickedness). The problem from Zimri's Gemara can be resolved in other ways (and if there is no resolution, then a tza and nothing more).
C. A minor point, but I did not understand anything about the smicha in order to flog and exempt those liable to amputation. It is clear that most or at least some of the circumcisions were carried out without warning and witnesses, except at most those who were wicked in the past and now want to repent. Therefore, there is no obligation in the Torah to flog, nor is there an obligation on the judge (or: permission) to flog, and this would be useful for exempting the circumcision, but specifically if the judges are nearby? What is the logic in this combination?
A. I commented on the difference between the offense and the punishment. But from the explanation it seems simple that in my case, a murder is both an offense and a punishment. It is ordinary murder and is not considered rape.
B. Indeed, that is true. I do not see this as a consequential consideration (or not only consequential). I also think that such a consideration is not enough to renew the ruling of Zimri.
C. Indeed, I wondered about this in the past. Perhaps there were those who did pass by witnesses and a warning, or they thought that if the people were mischievous, they could be flogged even without a warning (no warning was given, but to distinguish between accidental and intentional. A friend does not need a warning). And perhaps one could even be flogged to exempt from punishment even someone who is not required to be flogged as a punishment.
A. What is the difference between someone who wrongly attempted to work for someone (or kill someone) or who killed someone and committed a crime and was a slave, which Maimonides wrote is exempt from punishment even though he is forbidden to work, and someone who kills a court messenger, who in your opinion is liable to punishment because he is forbidden to kill?
I wrote the explanation in the column, because the obligation to kill him also falls on him.
I didn't understand how this relates to punishment when he was raped by a person who was a murderer? According to Maimonides (Yeshua 5:5), because he committed rape, etc., the court does not execute him, even if he killed someone in rape.
I explained. The obligation to kill himself is also imposed on him and therefore he is not a rapist. It is not like the obligation to surrender oneself for the three gravest crimes, where the obligation is to surrender one's life and not kill oneself.
Incidentally, it is possible that there may be a prohibition against killing a messenger of God and there will be no punishment. But my opinion is that there will be a punishment, and so on.
I still don't understand how and why you connect what the person owes to the question of whether he is considered a rapist in terms of punishment. (Apparently this is not similar to the regulations you cited in Makkah, where if he violated a decree to stay away and failed to approach, he is not exempt from rape in the Dauraita.) What is the connection between the condemned?
A simple, childish explanation. If a person must kill himself, it is unlikely that he would be considered a rapist, and even more so for him to kill someone he himself sent on a mission. When a person is told to kill himself, they are told that their life has no value and that they must disappear from the world. In any case, they are not rapists when their life is threatened.
I got up and will encourage you to see in the ordination pamphlet whether they planned to flog without warning, and here the pamphlet is very long like a cannonball, but I leafed through it and here I read a little and understood a little, and I summarize the (small) part of the discussion between the Maharleva and the Maharleva that concerns the matter of flogging without warning from what I found.
1. The Maharleva claimed that even if the ordination is accepted, it will not help the flogging when there are no witnesses and warning (and this is probably the majority of all cases) “their agreement will not be useful in achieving their purpose” because there is no warning, and explains this in the face of “that everyone is right”
A. Without warning, he is not punished with flogging at all, but only with amputation, and therefore no flogging exempts him.
B. Even if flogging were expiatory in the B ”D, it is not permissible to flog without witnesses and warning, and even if a person is permitted to forgive the pain of his body and they flog him at his request, he does not have loyalty to call himself evil and therefore they will not flog him and nothing should be done that would appear as if they believe in his own name as evil and in particular that there is a fear that he will die and this cannot be forgiven.
3. Since it comes of its own accord and depends on its will, then the shame is less since it is not similar to being ashamed of oneself as being ashamed of others and lacking a blemish, your brother in your eyes and therefore it is not certain that he will be freed from the punishment.
2. Rabbi Berav argued that indeed when one comes through repentance, there is no compulsion in the B ”D, but it is a little more serious (and even Ral”ch felt a little more serious), that if with witnesses and warning he was released from the flogging, then it is a little more serious that without witnesses and warning he was released from the flogging, then it is a little more serious that without witnesses and warning he was released from the flogging, And he brings evidence from the Geonim and the Ramah that flogging through repentance is to mitigate the sin (and among the Geonim, this means even without the presence of a close relative). And he emphasizes that if one merely admits to the offense but does not desire punishment through repentance, then he is not flogging.
3. Ral’ach held the opinion that flogging and the lesser of two evils are suffocating because of these external factors.
4. Mahar’i Be’rav said that flogging is not the purpose of flogging but one of the lesser branches, and rejected Ral’ach’s words.
A. He seems to be claiming from what I understand that even without warning there is an abstract obligation to flog, but it cannot be enforced and he is exempt from punishment, and this is due to the aforementioned flogging and the greater of two evils that it is not possible for someone who intentionally gave notice to someone to have a green light to be exempt from punishment, and the lesser of two evils is not.
B. However, they did flog through repentance according to custom and the Ge’onim, and the Rabbi brought the laws of ordination and flogging, although he only brings what is customary at this time, meaning that in the Rabbi’s opinion, flogging is possible and ordination can be renewed.
3. I did not find that Rabbi Be’erav responded to Ral’ach’s opinion that he is ashamed of himself, lacking a blemish, your brother in your eyes (this reminds me of your opinion, Rabbi Micha, that a person does not consider himself wicked and close to disqualification because “punishment” must come from outside) and perhaps I missed it.
5. (I got tired).
[My personal impression at the moment is half-hearted. From my limited understanding of the ways of the Gemara, it seems that Ral’ach is right. But the logic seems to be on the side of Rabbi Berav, and it seems that he brought a great deal of evidence from the Ge'onim, and according to him, the custom of all the Sages of Sephardim and the custom of all the Sages of Israel in our time is to flog through repentance. However, I did not find that Rabbi Berav explained whether and why the ordination is more beneficial than the flogging in the rabbinical court of the laity to come through repentance.
I think that the lashes that the Geonim inflicted without a whip were not 39 lashes per whip, but rather as a form of atonement, like the lashes practiced by Ashkenazi Hasidim.
Regarding lashes that exempt from the law of chastisement, I have long debated whether it is an independent law that lashes are inflicted in order to exempt from the law of chastisement (in which case one can be whipped even without being required to undergo the law of chastisement), or whether someone who is whipped because of the obligation of chastisement is relieved of chastisement. Ostensibly, the understanding is the second, but there are places that say the first.
Incidentally, a person does not have to consider himself wicked. If they saw him convert his religion, there is evidence that he is wicked. And as for his being willful, they may testify that he is at least a devout person who knows that one should not work hard and convert. Therefore, the claim that he convicted himself seems very weak to me.
D. Zimri commits a crime and if he interpreted and killed Pinchas, he was killed. But a pursuer does not commit a crime at the moment, but rather what is in his heart that he pursues to kill is imposed. But if the pursuer has made up his mind not to kill, then in truth he is like Zimri interpreted, except that the rescuer who was killed is exempt because he is aware of his duty to kill.
In such a situation, is a pursuer who knows that he has made up his mind to withdraw but has no way of explaining this to the rescuer allowed to turn around and kill the rescuer? And if he turns around, what is his ruling? [Apparently, if the rescuer is mistaken in the facts and thinks that there is persecution while the pursuer came with the knife only to perform emergency surgery and the rescuer came to save, then the “pursuer” is certainly permitted to defend himself and kill him.]
If exempt, then seemingly any pursuer who turned around will be excused on the grounds that he made up his mind to withdraw from killing and only pursue the pursued. [Even if you reply that a persecutor who has changed his mind is prohibited from killing the rescuer, whom he believes to be saving in righteousness and according to the mitzvah, and if he killed the rescuer, he is liable for it, or if the judge is not at all faithful to the claim of my interpretation in my heart, it must be said through a pleading that this is the truth that I believe in the law that a persecutor who has changed his mind is exempt and sentenced to death, and that he who has changed his mind is liable, and in this I forget the distinction between a pursued rescuer and a court messenger to kill.]
D. I don't know. There is an opinion that if he deceives the rescuer, it is unlikely that he should be allowed to kill him. Of course, if the rescuer makes an irrational decision that does not stem from the circumstances, then he is allowed and should be killed. He is an ordinary pursuer, even if in good faith (like a small pursuer).
1) If I understood correctly, your conclusion is that it is indeed permissible for a person to kill himself when the Supreme Court ruled that he is liable to death. Right?
But what about the prohibition on suicide?
2) You claim that the one who is obligated is permitted to kill himself and is prohibited from killing the messenger in the Supreme Court because "the obligation to kill him is imposed on the entire public and in particular on him as well." I apparently disagree. He does not have an obligation to carry out the killing, but only responsibility for its existence. So perhaps it is true that he is prohibited from killing the messenger, but he is also prohibited from killing himself.
3) How can it be understood that a person who fulfills the will of God will have a persecutory law against him?!?!? This is a misunderstanding of the interpretation, isn't it?
And I saw the explanation according to what you understood as "halachic territory," in which it can be said that even considerations of the will of God cannot harm it, in the territory. Do you see?
1-2. What about the prohibition on murder? How in the Bible will they execute him? It is clear that after there is a death sentence, there is no prohibition on murder and, to the same extent, no prohibition on suicide. But in any case, I did not say that such a person can or should kill himself. What I said is that he cannot kill the messenger of the Bible who came to kill him. As for the question of whether he can kill himself, that is not clear.
3. Absolutely. In my articles on territorial considerations, this was one of the examples.
I didn't understand why the MLA had to go to the extent of saying that no one is allowed to kill the rescuer. It seems to be a simple matter, since the rescuer comes to kill the pursuer in order to protect the pursued, and if someone kills the rescuer out of spite for being a pursuer, then he also indirectly kills the pursued, and essentially this whole story is about protecting the pursued.
There is no contradiction. The rescuer is permitted to kill in order to save the persecuted. But it is possible that at the same time the persecutor has permission to kill the rescuer in order to save himself. Pinchas also has permission to harm the Zealots of Midian, who are jealous of him, and the Zealots have permission to defend themselves.
Looking forward to it, thank you very much!
1. At the beginning of the column, it was explained that, on the one hand, the imposition of death only comes after a court ruling, there is no imposition of death without a court ruling. And on the other hand, after there is a court ruling, you claim that the condemned person is obligated to cooperate with the court ruling. On the face of it, this is difficult because it seems that this means that the imposition of death is a rule of conduct that instructs the condemned person how to behave, and if so, why do we have to wait for a ruling of the Supreme Court to impose death? It's like a borrower who borrows money has a rule of conduct to repay the loan, and this rule (law, halakha) applies even without a Supreme Court ruling. Although I can agree that in order to carry out and implement the imposition of death (i.e., to kill the condemned person) a court is needed (by virtue of institutional and social considerations, otherwise every person would take the law into their own hands), but according to your claim, it follows that he will in any case have the metaphysical status of a person liable to death (in your terminology, the imposition of death will not apply to him, but he will in any case be liable to death). And apparently this is not the case, from the sources of halakhic law the impression emerges that the person is not obligated at all before the court, he has nothing!
The implication that emerges from your theory (that the death penalty includes a rule of conduct that the person must follow and allow the court to carry out its sentence) is that a person who has committed an offense must surrender himself to law enforcement authorities so that they can punish him. And we have not seen or heard of this. And it seems more likely to say that the death penalty is a decision rule that instructs the court how to rule, and does not impose any rule of conduct on the convicted person. It is not because he was convicted in the court that he should be obligated to cooperate. This is a naturalistic fallacy.
2. What bothers you or prevents you from perceiving that penal law is rules that address the court and instruct it how to punish the offender, but that does not mean that the convicted person must bear his punishment. Furthermore, the concept of punishment does not analytically include the obligation for the punisher to willingly and kindly accept his punishment.
3. You explained that according to the Mishnah, it is simple that the representative of the court will not have a persecutory law because he is the representative of the entire public, and in particular of the condemned person, and if so, the condemned person must also ensure that he will be liable to death. But this is a rather dubious leap, the court is the representative of the public as a society (a social and legal arrangement) and not as a collection of items, and it is certainly possible that on the one hand the judge must fulfill his mission and carry out the death of the debtor, and on the other hand the debtor can escape or try to escape.
4. You explained that it is possible that a person who redeems a person has the right to kill the murderer and therefore he will not have a persecutory law. First, the leap between the Torah's permission for the redeemer to kill the murderer and the fact that he has the right to kill him seems unreasonable. And second, the murderer also has the right to protect his life, and from his perspective the redeemer will have a persecutory law! Who said that the redeemer's right to revenge outweighs the right of the unintentional murderer to defend himself? And the evidence is, if there really is no permission to violate the redeemer's right, why are there cities of refuge? Rather, we see that the murderer also has the right to defend himself, and from this perspective, from his perspective, the redeemer is subject to a persecutory law.
5. At the end, you wrote, "If it is clear to me that the law passed on me is false, I am certainly permitted to flee and prevent its execution." But why? You have already explained that the Bar Association and the court have formal authority, and even if I disagree with the ruling, I am obligated to uphold it.
1. You make a lot of assumptions that I don't know where you got them from. The obligation to kill is only after the ruling of the court, and after the ruling, the obligation is also on him himself. Why does the claim that the obligation is only after the ruling mean that there is no obligation on him himself? I don't see the connection. I also don't understand why you assume that he is not obligated to turn himself in. It is certainly plausible that there is, although I can perhaps understand someone who would argue otherwise. But I wouldn't base any problem on that.
2. Every court acts on behalf of the public. It is a public institution and not just a collection of people. Why would these people be charged with killing a person if there is no obligation to kill him? There is no obligation to accept the punishment happily and with a good heart, he has an obligation to be punished.
3. A great compulsion in my opinion. The public is the entirety of individuals. Otherwise, there is no obligation on any individual and how will the public obligation be fulfilled? Think about the commandments of the community. It is an obligation on the public but every individual is exempt from it. So how will it be fulfilled? I explained here in the past that for this reason women are also obligated even though time has caused the obligation to be on the public. And I further explained how it is possible for the mitzvah to be fulfilled by the public and yet there will be a person who has canceled it (someone who did not reach Jerusalem). See column 254.
4. It is possible, and the opposite is also possible. I did not state this definitively. But the cities of refuge do not prove anything. It is possible that he has the right to defend himself in the cities of refuge but not to kill the redeemer.
5. Because I know that the judge was wrong and therefore his ruling is wrong and invalid.
1. Regarding this, you wrote in the column "The accepted rule in halakha is that as long as a court has not sentenced you to death, you are not liable to death." And I did not understand, ostensibly I would say that a person who desecrated Shabbat, for example, is actually liable to death (the offense entails the obligation), but only the BID can make him liable, that is, only the BID can enforce the obligation the offender already has. The BID only reveals the obligation to die and does not create it. Am I wrong here?
5. I did not understand your excuse. The BID has formal authority, and therefore we must accept what it rules even if we do not agree.
1. You are definitely wrong. It is what I wrote.
5. When a judge is clearly wrong, the ruling is not considered a ruling and therefore is not binding. This is evident from the issue regarding the judge's obligation to pay when he is wrong. If he is wrong about a minor matter, the ruling does not exist at all, this is in contrast to a mistake in judgment. Therefore, it is absurd that if he is wrong about a minor matter, he is exempt from paying and if he is wrong in judgment, he is obligated.
1. Can I ask where I can read this foundation?
Many have dealt with him. A primary source is the Rek”a in the Shas issue, Makot 5 A”a (although in the Toss it appears differently). See also the Acharonim, where they peppered his words.
Is the law of persecutor also applicable to a civilian (or in general to a person who lacks awareness)? In other words, is it permissible for the pursued to kill him?
Or even, is it permissible for someone who has awareness but no criminal intent, such as a soldier who shoots his comrade when he thought he was one of the enemies, to be subject to the law of persecutor?
Of course, the question arises in the extreme case where the pursued has no other option than to kill the persecutor in order to save himself.
Absolutely yes. The Amoraim disagreed on this in the Gemara regarding a small pursuer, and the halakhic ruling ruled that he has a pursuer's law. This is also seen in the Mishnah of a fetus that would have been difficult for a child in tents.
Okay from a halakhic perspective. But what do you think from a moral perspective? What is the justification for preferring the life of the victim over the life of the attacker?
And a more general question:
Some may kill and not commit murder because "Who will make blood redder than your blood?"
In the event that there is indeed redder blood, such as a righteous man versus a wicked man, is it permissible to prefer the life of the righteous man?
Only when the gap is extreme. Usually the poskim write that a human life is of infinite value and therefore it is not possible to create a hierarchy. Even between temporal life and eternal life (although here there were those who wanted to prefer eternal life). For example, I argued that someone who died of brain death must certainly be sacrificed in order to save another person to a full life, even on the side that brain death is not death. See my article on organ harvesting and transplantation.
Because the attacker should bear the consequences of his actions even if he is not guilty of them. Certainly more so than another person who should not suffer because of him.
According to the Rosh, only Zimri was allowed to kill Pinchas, but the others were not:
But Inesh Akhirina was killed for him, because he was a complete persecutor, because he was a scoundrel. And Zimri could save himself with Pinchas's life, but not for Inesh Da'lama. Inesh Itiyyib had permission to kill Zimri, but he had permission to save him with Pinchas's life. Pinchas:
https://he.wikisource.org/wiki/%D7%A8%D7%91%D7%99%D7%A0%D7%95_%D7%90%D7%A9%D7%A8_%D7%A2%D7%9C_%D7%94%D7%A9%22%D7%A1/%D7%A4%D7%A1%D7%A7%D7%99_%D7%94%D7%A8%D7%90%22%D7%A9/%D7%A1%D7%A0%D7%94%D7%93%D7%A8%D7%99%D7%9F/%D7%A4%D7%A8%D7%A7_%D7%98
In the vessel of desire, he brought such opinions there, but for a different reason. Some of the first ones believe that the obligation to save in one of his limbs exists only on a third rescuer and not on the persecuted person himself.
The head's opinion is very logical, even in my opinion, if only because only Zimri can decide to continue sinning and defend himself from Pinchas.