Ashkenazi and Sephardic body ownership

Michael wrote:

Hahaha, you wrote well.
Funny, funny, but I saw that Rabbi Aviner discussed this seriously. Really ridiculous.
And perhaps this is another implication of the widespread phenomenon of losing common sense among the thinkers of the Beit Hamidrash

Why the loss of common sense? For those who are careful about it, the question is obvious.

I am not familiar with Rabbi Aviner's discussion. A distinction must be made between a hypothetical Torah discussion, which sometimes requires impractical and even illusory questions, and a discussion in a halakhic context. Context is everything.
I stated this in my response to David Assaf's blog a few years ago: http://onegshabbat.blogspot.co.il/2013/12/blog-post_6404.html
See my response there and the responses to it and my second one.

By the way, as I explained there (and we devoted an entire book in the Talmudic Logic series to the Platonic nature of the Talmud, and there I explained all of this) there is a point to such a discussion if its purpose is not to clarify this halakhah itself, but rather if the situation sharpens a relevant halakhic or meta-halakhic question. I don't know if that's what was here because I didn't see the discussion.

Pishita, the division is clear. And on the ’halakha’ in practice’ I have

The Lord did not come except so that we might read your words there - we have been blessed.

To Michael:
I find it hard to believe that Rabbi Aviner discussed this. I would love to receive a link.

To Michael:
I find it hard to believe that Rabbi Aviner discussed this. I would love to receive a link.

I will try to look for B”N later.

If this patent is true, it seems to me a waste not to exploit it in a much broader context:
The Ashkenazi can give his body to a Gentile, and then he will also have more leaven on Passover.
If he is a vegan, he can sell his body to a lion, and he will be allowed to eat meat.
Or perhaps to the Wizard of Oz, and then he can act like a governor in a dome.

In the 24th of Adar, I have not been able to understand how a Jew can give himself over to another in the ownership of his body, since all of Israel is purchased in the ownership of his body for their destruction and redemption, as he wrote in his Torah: ‘For the children of Israel are slaves to me’ and the sages taught: ‘They are my slaves and not slaves to slaves’, and therefore a Hebrew slave does not have ownership of his body, but rather a duty to serve his master.

The only situation of a person who is obligated by the commandments regarding ‘ownership of the body’ is a Canaanite slave whose body is purchased for his master, but it seems simple that he must act according to the customs of his master, if his master is Ashkenazi, the slave is bound to ketaniyot, and if his master is Sephardic – More the slave in legumes

With blessings, העברית שמשון זכוי לואינוגר סטבען [who is, according to the words of Rabbi Sharki ראת: סקנזי תאהור]

In the 24th of Adar, the 8

And Ashkenazi will sell himself to the Temanites and marry women as he pleases…

See Kiddushin 16:1 and 28:1: "For his body is purchased."

For the children of Israel to be slaves to me is a prohibition and not a categorical statement. A. can be tempted and violate this.