Casuistic formulation

In one of your articles, you convincingly showed that the Sages used casuistic formulation.
And you mentioned:
“Why do the Sages really prefer a casuistic formulation, and not use the formulation of theoretical laws (like the positivist method)? I cannot address this important question here, and for my purposes here it is sufficient for me to state the fact that this is indeed the way of the Sages.”
Have you gone back and written somewhere about the reason for the casuistic formulation? Could you please write the gist of things here?
Thank you very much and Happy Holidays!
 
P.S.
Personally I am inclined to say that this way is preferable because it is more precise. Sometimes the general law cannot be formulated unless it is precisely violated. But I am not sure about that.