civil law

Hello Rabbi,
Do monetary definitions stem from the definition of humans or are they pure logic?
That is, for example, does the concept of “ownership” and the like already exist in a world without humans (but there is no one to realize them), or is it not a “real” concept but merely a “social construct”? And so with regard to “owned,” “one does not follow the majority in wealth,” etc., etc.
On the other hand, the answer is that they are all social concepts, so what is binding about them?
And is it possible to propose a middle way, in which, although the definition of the basic concepts (ownership, property, and perhaps more) is human, the laws that emerge from these definitions are the fruit of logic? Just as the theorems of geometry are the fruit of the axioms that underlie them.
Thank you very much.