Day and Aristotle
Good evening!
1- Ostensibly, Yom’s claim that a proper cannot be deduced from a given assumes that there are no ‘ideas’ in reality, since this is his claim itself – that since it is impossible to observe ideas, in any case both science (induction) and ethics are the fruit of man’s own structure and are not claims about the world (and are equivalent to the claim that I must eat because it is moral. In other words, it is not morality that demands man, but necessity).
That is, one cannot speak of values that are not objective ideas that are external to reality (transcendental) and certainly not the complex facts of reality.
And so, K. Lee, how did Aristotle, who denied the existence of ideas beyond reality, manage to posit a binding ethics, and is he right in saying that one cannot speak of value solely from the existence of facts (i.e., the non-existence of ideas)?
2- Kant claims that man must be rational. And why? Is it because it is a way to live well. That is, as someone will tell me what the best way to eat is. Or is there something beyond that? That is, self-actualization is more than a description of the existence of a fact (after all, we do not call someone who has the potential to eat and does so, that he has realized himself, albeit cynically of course…)?
3- Similarly, Kant argued that ethics stems from morality. What is the connection?
Thank you very much!
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- You are mixing things up. It can be argued that if there are no ideals, there is no morality, but it is not true that if there are no ideals, then Yom is right. Both claims are correct: A. Yom is definitely right. B. Truly, if there are no ideals, there is no morality. But the naturalistic fallacy has nothing to do with Platonism. If for some reason you think there is morality even in an Aristotelian picture, there is no reason to state this without deriving it from facts.
 - See column 120.
 - I didn’t understand the question. Define ethics and morality and the difference between them.
 
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Good morning!
1- How can one determine that there is morality (which is a value) in a world where there are no ideals?
3- Did I mean ethics and rationality?
Carefully. Understand that this is the will of the ’. I am a moral realist (column 456) but that is a different issue. Certainly not related to the naturalistic fallacy.
All rationality assumes assumptions. Kant assumes that there are moral obligations and deduces the categorical imperative from this.
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