Fire damage
The Gm. in Bk. 66: cites the opinion of the Sages, that if one lights a fire inside his friend’s house, he is liable for hidden things, but only for what is meant to be there (such as a cattle utensil in a shed). The question is, what is the explanation for the exemption? Since he caused damage with his hands, why shouldn’t he be liable for all the damage he caused?
thanks
The question of the relationship between the hidden exemption and rape already arises in the Gemara and Rishonim. I assume that if we identify it with rape, then by setting fire in his neighbor’s yard, it begins as a crime and ends as rape. But only if the tools are used to be there. Otherwise, there is a kind of contributory fault for the damage (although this is really strange. And does he owe anything to the arsonist? He has the right to do everything in his yard).
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