For you will not be deceived or guessed.
1. Does someone who avoids going to the sea during the counting of the Omer for fear of danger or someone who gets married during the full moon (this is apparently a virtue) violate the “Let us not be troubled”?
2. Does someone who avoids selling their first piece of land pass the “You Won’t Guess” test? (Like someone who avoids spending money at the beginning of the week).
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0 Answers
1. It is difficult for me to answer this. He who forbids himself because the sages said that there is a danger in it is observing the law (in his opinion). The sages who forbade it also truly thought so and therefore did not pass a prohibition. Virtues that have no origin are indeed close to prohibition.
2. Same as above.
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Asks:
The first sages who said that there is a bad omen in a person’s first sale of land, didn’t they violate “You shall not guess”? If we say that they really thought so, we can say that even someone who sees a black cat really thinks that there is a bad omen in it and that day will refrain, let’s say, from making transactions. In this way, we have essentially uprooted the prohibition of “You shall not guess.”
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Rabbi:
This is how all the signs of the Gemara should be made difficult. I really don’t know. Anyone who really thinks so or believes that there is a reasonable source for it, does not pass. It’s like using alternative medicine, even though it is probably nonsense, does not become a prohibition (because people think it works). Although according to the Rambam, there is a prohibition against being stupid, it is difficult to conclude from this that someone who is innocently stupid passes a prohibition (and even if there is a prohibition against rape). The prohibition exists where you go after something that you understand has no real source (there are such situations, although it is true that they are rare). The Rambam believed that if a wise person like him tells you that all this is nonsense, then of course you should accept his words and you understand it too. This is naivety, of course.
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Asks:
In Yod, 19:19, the Shulchan Aruch mentions all sorts of examples of divination and divination, some of which are permitted and some of which are not. I don’t understand what the difference is between those that are permitted and those that are not (what is the criterion for forbidding)? According to what you said, if a person truly believes in some kind of prayer belief related to divination or divination, then there is no prohibition here. So, let’s say I believe that if I spend money on Shabbat, it will be a bad sign for the rest of the week financially, why am I not allowed to act in accordance with this belief?
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Rabbi:
Who said you are forbidden? At least assuming that there is a reasonable basis for this belief and not just delusions. This depends on the dispute of the Rishonim, since according to the Rambam, what works is not forbidden (because the basis of the prohibition is being a fool), and for the Ramban and his party there are things that work and yet are forbidden (because it is forbidden to rely on powers from the Sitra Achra). Alternative medicine is an excellent example. There are intelligent people who believe in it, but there is no basis for it except for non-representative examples that happened to be successful.
It seems to me that the differences between the actions depend on one of two criteria: A. Whether it works or not (i.e. whether the belief in it is rational or not). on. Is this a Gentile custom or not (because Maimonides links these prohibitions to Gentile laws).
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