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Is Kant the greatest mystic of modern times?

שו”תCategory: philosophyIs Kant the greatest mystic of modern times?
asked 3 months ago

Letter to Rabbi Doctor Michael Avraham
 
**Topic: A fundamental problem in Kantian philosophy**
 
Hello Rabbi,
 
I am addressing you with a philosophical matter that has been troubling me for a long time. While studying Kantian philosophy, I discovered a seemingly fundamental problem that may somewhat undermine the method, and despite extensive searches in the academic literature, I have not found a discussion of it.
The problem goes to the heart of the Kantian enterprise. Kant builds his entire philosophy on the assumption that he is engaged in phenomenology – the study of how human consciousness perceives reality. He assumes that our consciousness, which is clearly corporeal and human, observes phenomena and shapes them into an experience through pure categories and intuitions. His entire system is based on the distinction between the phenomena we experience and the thing itself, which remains beyond all possible knowledge.
But here the fundamental problem emerges. Kant apparently cannot know what our consciousness actually observes. It can observe physical manifestations of the divine infinity, or alternatively ordinary physical phenomena that have no connection with the divine. Kant himself blocks the possibility of answering this question, since he claims that the thing itself is unknown in principle and unknowable.
On the other hand, when we examine the way Kant describes the thing itself, it becomes clear that he attributes very specific properties to it. The thing itself is so abstract and indefinite that it cannot be included in the scope of a phenomenon. Our consciousness cannot grasp it in any way. It has no possible title or description. It exists beyond every category and every concept. But this description is precisely the classical philosophical definition of divine infinity – that which is beyond every description and title, that which exceeds any final definition.
It is important to clarify that I am not talking here about God in the religious sense of a commanding or personal being, but about the philosophical concept of infinity – the reality that is beyond all limitation and description. This is a concept that appears in many philosophers from Plotinus to Spinoza, and is always characterized by exactly the same qualities that Kant attributes to the thing itself. In fact, the more Kant emphasizes the absolute inability to know the thing itself, the stronger his identification with philosophical infinity. The absolute transcendence that he describes is precisely what defines the divine in philosophy.
If the thing itself is indeed the divine infinity, a far-reaching conclusion follows: all the phenomena that our consciousness sees are in fact expressions of the divine infinity. What Kant thinks of as “innocent” phenomenology—a neutral account of how we perceive things—turns out to be in fact an account of how the divine infinity reveals itself to finite consciousness. This is a profound paradox: Kant wanted to separate phenomenology from ontology, to limit philosophy to the realm of how we know without making claims about what really exists. He even explicitly claimed that he rejected the concept of ontology. But if phenomena are expressions of infinity, then his entire philosophy becomes an ontological study of the divine—the exact opposite of what he intended.
The situation is even more ironic when you consider the implications. Kant becomes, unintentionally and unknowingly, the greatest mystic of modern times. All his detailed description of how consciousness shapes experience through categories, how time and space are forms of observation – all this becomes an accurate description of how the divine infinity is revealed and shaped into a phenomenal world that finite consciousness can perceive.
It should be noted that if this is indeed the case, then the Kantian system also solves in this way some of the most classic philosophical problems. The problem of multiplicity from unity, which occupied philosophers from Plotinus to Schelling, receives an elegant solution: multiplicity is created by the forms that consciousness imposes on the experience of the unitary infinity. The problem of the relationship between the finite and the infinite, which troubled Spinoza and others, is also solved: the finite is the way in which infinity is revealed through the limitations of human consciousness.
Any attempt to claim “I deal only with phenomena” presupposes knowledge of what is beyond phenomena – precisely the knowledge that Kant claims we do not have. The attempt to do a “non-ontological” philosophy turns out to be fundamentally inconsistent.
And of course the implications for modern philosophy are enormous. If the argument is correct, the secular revolution that followed Kant is based on a fundamental misunderstanding. The Enlightenment thought it was freeing man from “superstition” and putting human reason at the center, but in fact it described with great precision the way in which human consciousness encounters the divine infinity in every moment of experience. Modern science, conceived as a secular project detached from metaphysics, becomes an investigation of the ways in which infinity is expressed in the law and order of the phenomenal world.
My extensive search of the academic literature did not turn up any discussion of this specific problem. I found many critiques of the thing itself, comparisons between Kant and Berkeley, and discussions of the status of transcendental consciousness, but not the simple and fundamental question of what exactly our consciousness observes and what the meaning of the inability to answer this question is.
 
I would love to hear your professional opinion on the argument, its logical validity, and the question of whether it is appropriate to develop it into a comprehensive academic study. In other words, where did I fall?
 
Best regards,
Israel


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0 Answers
מיכי Staff answered 3 months ago
A few comments on this chatter. 1. In your words, you brought a collection of statements that are said about him: On the other hand, when we examine the way Kant describes the thing itself, it becomes clear that he attributes very specific properties to it. The thing itself is so abstract and indeterminate that it cannot be included in the scope of a phenomenon. Our consciousness cannot grasp it in any way. It has no possible title or description. It lies beyond every category and every concept… If these are ‘very specific features’, I wouldn’t want to be around when you’re actually describing specific features. 2. It is not true that the inability to say anything about the thing in itself is some kind of limitation of ours. We have the ability to say everything about it. What we say about it is the phenomenon. 3. The same is true of God. We can certainly say things about him. We can say that he exists, for example (which is a statement about the noumenon). We can describe his dimensions (which are part of his phenomenon, just like any other object). 4. Further on in the passage I quoted above, you write: But this description is precisely the classical philosophical definition of divine infinity – that which is beyond all description and description, that which exceeds any final definition. According to your line of thinking, the chair itself is God, and so is the dove, the watermelon, the cloud, and so on. It comes out somewhat polytheistic. It is true that God is something about which you cannot say anything. But when there is something about which you cannot say anything, it is not necessarily God. 5. A similar criticism of Kant was raised by Lev Shastov, and I dealt with it in a series of columns (494 onwards) on the subject. His argument was that the distinction between phenomenon and noumenon is itself part of the phenomenon. Or in other words: how can one even know that there is a noumenon?

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ישראל replied 3 months ago

A. Thank you very much for the quick response.
B. The words very specific properties were written ironically, of course.
C. The point is that if you do not know what the thing is in itself, and this knowledge does not stem from the brevity of the grasper but from the depth of the concept. That is, it will never be appropriate in reality to grasp it because it is above the boundary of a phenomenon in general, that is, above any boundary. Isn't this the meaning of divinity in the language of philosophy?
D. As for the chair, it is not God, but an expression of the power of divinity in the world of physical phenomena. The same chair as a phenomenon can appear in millions of other variations of phenomena in any world.
E. And all of this comes from the basic question, if Kant describes the thing in itself in this way, a description that is of course an anti-description. How does he know how to say that he deals with the phenomenology of reality and not with the phenomenology of divinity, which is actually a branch of ontology.. And simply put, it is not even within the realm of maybe, because his description of the thing in itself is actually parallel to what philosophy usually calls divine.
F. If so, when we focus the question, it will be formulated like this, and I would like to ask if you can answer it. How does the thing in itself, which is not defined by any definition whatsoever, differ from the philosophical concept of divinity? And if it is parallel to it, why not say that all life is physical phenomena in which divinity is expressed?

ישראל replied 3 months ago

I will add another word, where does Kant get the idea that the phenomena as our consciousness reveals them are the primary phenomena that come from the thing in itself? Perhaps they are merely the tip of the iceberg. And simply the chair that we are able to perceive in our consciousness is a physical chair, but perhaps before it there were already tens of thousands of levels of chairs higher than high that are all phenomena of the same thing in itself. And there is also a great explanation for this in reason. Why is it said that the thing in itself, which in his eyes is not defined even in the realm of the spiritual, its direct expression will be the most defined, clumsy and limited thing there is.

מיכי Staff replied 3 months ago

B. 🙂 As we know, on the Internet it is difficult to know what is written in irony.
C. My argument is that there is no problem in knowing the properties of the thing itself. Not the depth of the concept, nor the brevity of the achiever, nor the shoes. These properties are the phenomenon. I referred to my columns where I explain this.
The interpretation of a deity is the one who created the world and gave the Torah. He is indeed also difficult to achieve, etc. But not everyone who is difficult or not fruitful to achieve is a deity. I have already explained this.
D. Chinese.
E. Very simple. He sees that there is a chair and assumes that there is a chair in itself. What does that have to do with deity?
F. I answered that in the second part of C above.

מיכי Staff replied 3 months ago

I'm looking for a dictionary to understand what you want. Kant just said there's a chair here. You ask how he knows that this chair isn't a reflection of something else? Maybe it really is. Kant didn't deal with that.

מיכאל replied 3 months ago

Israel, you had an interesting and brilliant identification here in my opinion, I don't understand why Rabbi Michi dismissed you as he did. Israel's argument, as I understand it, is that there is a process in Kant that moves – at least – on the border of theology. If we take the concept of “the thing that is in itself” not as a single, concrete object that has a concrete manifestation, but as a general definition of what is at the basis of all phenomena (and this is no less close to the truth), then we are very close to the definition of divinity by many thinkers, as the fundamental force, inaccessible to reason or the senses, that underlies phenomena. The analogy is very beautiful. And if I may, I believe that the reason why this analogy eluded recognition is that Kant's process moved in the opposite direction: he began with the characteristics of human reason, with its inherent subjectivity, and from there moved to the "thing in itself".

ישראל replied 3 months ago

A. Michael, thanks for the explanation. That's what I meant and didn't respond.
B. We really should also discuss the Rabbi's definition of God as the one who created the world and gave the Torah.
So why does Spinoza call God? I'm talking about the same God of Spinoza.
C. And also, in general, as a result of this description, isn't the description of the thing in itself, of everything, even of the private chair, obligatory anyway? If it is so undefined that it has no descriptive meaning, and is not even within the realm of the spiritual. Such raids are divine raids.

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