legitimacy
Shalom Rabbi, is an elected official allowed to act according to his discretion in a matter that the majority of the public that elected him strongly opposes (in the event that we know that this is the case)? Do I have moral legitimacy to act in this way or not? thanks
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In my opinion, in principle no. It is difficult to determine this categorically, because sometimes things seen from there are not seen from here, and therefore there is room for the discretion of the person in office: if he sees that the interests of his constituents will be better realized in a way they do not think of, to deviate from his promises.
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