Mini sweets after last matzah
Hello Rabbi.
In the Talmud on Pesachim (Kit: 120) there are two versions of the question of whether it is permissible to eat dessert after the last matzah (what is now called “afikomen”). According to the first version, it is forbidden, while the second version is permitted; beyond this, the Gemara did not rule; it is known from the halachic perspective that the poskim resorted to the homura as the first version. And I asked why? After all, this issue was not resolved in the Talmud, and apparently the prohibition of eating after the afikomen (or after the sacrifice or after the matzah) is not a Torah prohibition but a rabbinical prohibition, and the rabbinical doubt about it is valid. ??
2. Would it be permissible to relax the consideration I wrote, even though the jurists (most or all of them, I don’t know) ruled in favor of the case?
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Thank you very much Rabbi. I searched in books and also online and did not find any poskim that allow it. Can someone please help me, who are the poskim??
When I read your question, for some reason I understood that you were asking about after midnight, and that's what I answered.
Although also regarding the actual eating, see the requirement there that discusses the question of whether only when you bless does one not eat before you bless. But in this case, almost all the poskim have taken a priori lishnaa kama and it is difficult to be lenient. If you yourself believe this for some reason, then of course you can act as you wish.
It just seems to me easier to be precise than the mishna that says that “one does not eat dessert after the Afikoman after Pesach” means after Pesach and not after the matzah, than to say that one does not eat dessert after the Afikoman (one does not eat dessert after the Afikoman, but after Pesach, one does not eat dessert), which is less clear than the mishna.
In addition, it is supposedly better because many times you want to eat dessert and you know that after the Afikoman you will not be able to, so you eat dessert before the Afikoman and then the latter is eaten, which is gross eating, and does not fulfill one’s obligation.
{ PS: The Maimonides wrote that the reason one does not eat dessert after Pesach (and in his opinion even after the Matzah) is so that the taste remains in the mouth; one should pepper it. Is this a general law? What is its origin in general? }
Are the things I wrote enough to make it easier??
Many thanks in advance. I really appreciate it💙
As I wrote, if it convinces you, then act accordingly.
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