On the prohibition against harming one’s neighbor’s money

Hello Rabbi,
Regarding the prohibition against harming one’s fellow man’s money, I saw that the commentators are trying to find the source of the prohibition. Today I happened to come across evidence that I think is good, which I had not seen mentioned in the commentators:
In the first chapter, page 5, page 2:
And David became thirsty and said, “Who will give me a drink of water from the well of Bethlehem, which is by the gate?” And the three mighty men broke through the camp of the Philistines and drew water from the well of Bethlehem, which is by the gate. [And] what is the matter with him? … Rav Huna said: The mighty men of Israel were scattered from the Philistine strongholds, and what is the matter with him? What is the matter with him saving himself with his neighbor’s wealth? They sent to him: It is forbidden to save himself with his neighbor’s wealth, but you are a king, and a king breaks in to make a way for himself and has no wisdom in his hand.
David wanted to burn (=damage) the Gadish of Israel and thus eliminate the Philistines. The answer he received was that this was forbidden to an ordinary person. Many of the commentators ask here why this would be forbidden, since theft is not one of the three serious offenses of “ye yor
Thus, the column also wrote at the beginning of the Laws of Torts, paragraph 1, “Just as it is forbidden to steal and rob one’s neighbor’s money, so it is forbidden to harm his money, even if he does not benefit from it.”
What do you think?
Best regards,