Prayer in public
peace,
 According to the Rabbi’s view that there is no obligation to pray in a minyan, how can we understand Rabbi Eliezer who freed his Canaanite slave so that he could complete the minyan of ten, even though the freer of his slave committed an act (the early scholars disagreed on whether this was an actual act or a rabbinical law)?
 thanks
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	For there to be a permission, it does not have to be a mitzvah. As the Ramban explained, the permission is based on the fact that it is the Lord’s need, and thus it fulfills “you shall serve them forever.”   
	
	
	
	
	
			
		
							
								
	
	
	
	
	
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