Punishment and offense ratio

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asked 3 years ago

1. I don’t understand why the severity of the punishment is not proportional to the severity of the offense!?? How can it be that someone who simply lights a candle on Shabbat is liable to death, and someone who steals a million euros from someone is only liable to double payments.
Unless we say that God’s ways are hidden and dedicated to Him, and in essence the relationship is indeed a proportional relationship, but the disadvantage is that we do not fully understand the seriousness of the various offenses we commit, and in essence, desecrating the Sabbath is a form of theft.
But I don’t really like excuses like that.

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מיכי Staff answered 3 years ago

Are you referring to any article or column? If so, it’s worth mentioning it for both my benefit and the benefit of the readers. My argument in the article on punishment is that sometimes punishment addresses the type of offense and therefore it relates to it in its type and not necessarily in its severity. If the purpose of punishment is to constitute a sanction for the offense, then it is likely that there will be a proportion between the severity of the offense and the severity of the punishment. But if it is a matter of type (a disguised punishment atones for a certain type of offense), then not necessarily.

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EA replied 3 years ago

I don't care. In which article do you write this claim?