question
Greetings to Rabbi Michael Avraham.
I wanted to ask. I studied the introduction to the Maimonides chapter, where he explains a part of it.
That observing Torah and mitzvot for a purpose is only appropriate for fools or those who have not yet understood
And truly, the real reason is not for any purpose, but the Torah and the commandments are the goal, since they are the truth.
And I really want to know if it’s possible to understand this.
That is, I myself definitely feel the need and attraction to tell the truth even without reward (at least sometimes).
But I guess the fact that I feel this way doesn’t show anything since I still have a few strokes left in my life.
And they are probably not true.
I would be very happy if the rabbi had the opportunity to give me an explanatory answer to this.
Regards
Tea does not distinguish between an attraction or inclination and an insight that it is right. They are not the same thing. Even if you are attracted to not stealing or helping others, at the same time you also think that it is right to do so.
What is the definition of insight that is correct?
I can't substantiate it intellectually/logically?
What does it mean to establish? Every establishment is an argument, and every argument always has basic premises from which it proceeds.
You can never establish the basic premises (by virtue of being basic premises). You adopt them because you know they are true, and then you can begin to base things on them.
I elaborated more in my book Two Carts and Truth and Unstable.
I assume that what Rav means is what is written in one of the appendices of “God Plays Dice” with the example that appears there
On the basic premise that between 2 points there is only one straight line and that two parallel lines will never meet
So I would really like to understand this more
Can the same be said about the fact that one plus one equals 2?
That’s right, this assumption is built not only on empirical observation but also on the fact that I understand why it is so, that is, I can arrive at this
Also in a way of calculating based on the data
Am I right?
No. Every axiom is the result of intuition. The fact that you “understand” means that your intuition says it. You have no proof and yet if someone says otherwise you will hospitalize them and not say that this is your subjective position.
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