Questioned about the cosmological view

In the SD
Hello Rabbi,
I wanted to ask, in the cosmological view, following the fallacy that everything has a cause, proven by the denial that there is a God, and the use of lex specialis to reduce the principle of causality to one link (at least) in the chain.
But why can’t the initial matter that existed in the Big Bang fit into this? After all, it is an unknown object. Just as, according to science, only after the explosion did the laws of nature crystallize or come into being, they talk about it being ancient, etc. That Sinegalitarian point or whatever you call it.
I’m asking the rabbi here from the hat of a scientist and philosopher.
Personally, it doesn’t seem reasonable to me because of dualism (and the physicsological aspect), but I think that in terms of the position on an entity unknown to us, it fits well with the criteria. Like wine for a glass. And a mask for a face.