Questions
1) Is it possible to morally prohibit gay marriage/male intercourse/homosexual orientation because of the categorical imperative?
2) When I say “A Jew is one whose mother is Jewish,” is this a circular argument? If so, how can a Jew be defined in a good way?
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- I didn’t understand: Because you don’t want a general law that everyone be gay? And what does it mean to ban an orientation? Are you serious?
- It’s not circular, it’s recursive. You just need to add an initial condition that Sarah was Jewish. Think about the mathematical definition of a natural number: 1 is a natural number. Every subsequent number of a natural number is also a natural number.
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With your permission, I see that the questioner did not respond to the first question, so I want to ask about it as well 🙂
Apparently, if men only had relations with men and women only with women, then humanity would not exist, and this is something we would not want, so according to the categorical imperative, it is something that should not be done. Maybe there is a difference between the period before the development of surrogacy, etc. and the period now? I don't know … I trust the rabbi, as usual, to make an order for me.
And as for prohibiting a tendency, it is really puzzling. But if there is a person with a tendency to steal, we can say that he has a tendency to act immorally (which is not his fault, of course). So maybe we can also say that someone who has a homosexual tendency has a tendency to act immorally?
If the whole world were engaged in medicine, it would be ruined. The same goes for selling falafel. Is that why it is forbidden to be a doctor or a falafel seller? A simplistic application of the categorical imperative leads to nonsense.
You can formulate the general law that anyone who is inclined towards men will have male relations. It is a general law and everything is fine. Nothing is ruined.
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