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Questions and answers I wrote from Saba, I would be happy for his insightful comments…

שו”תCategory: Talmudic studyQuestions and answers I wrote from Saba, I would be happy for his insightful comments…
asked 3 years ago

A. In this matter, he welcomed the opinion of another group and another group:
The Mishnab (Tikvah, 2 Skad) stated in the name of the eternal building that if they took the shofar in the middle of the blowing and brought another shofar, they should repeat the blessing. But if they took the shofar between the blessing and the beginning of the blowing, they should repeat the blessing, meaning that the blessing applies to the mitzvah – the shofar that was before it. And Tza, Debspiya explains in the Shulchan Ar that if one recites the blessing to count four days and remembers five days, he does not repeat the blessing, because one is preparing to perform the mitzvah, and Tza Ha Sus does not prepare for the mitzvah of this day, and May Shana Mushofer Dish is required to prepare for the mitzvah itself.
This is what I thought,

Regarding the shofar being taken from him before blowing – what does the blessing apply to? Like a fruit that fell from his hand after the blessing and before eating, but in the Sifiya the blessing is not for the day but for the mitzva itself and the blessing is issued despite mistakenly counting another day. (For example, if the shofarer was replaced by the one blowing the shofar before blowing – he certainly does not recite the blessing again).
Again, I am not basing this on sources, but on my own opinion.

on. Regarding the law of reciting Shema as a Torah study:
The text of the R.F.B. of Debarchot: And it ends at the break of dawn, the R.Y. says until three hours, etc., the one who reads from here on out does not lose as much as the one who reads the Torah, because. And in the Shulchan (Och 40) in the Haggai: And it is good to say in the morning after Shema Yisrael, etc. in Shekmel 6, because sometimes one lingers with a khash to read it at an untimely time and it is omitted. And the latter interpreted it, meaning that when it is seen that the congregation will exceed the time of the khash, then one should intend to omit the khash in it. And in the Shulchan Shulchan HaGar (ibid. 9) he added that it means that if the public exceeds the time of the KSh, it will be done in this way, and if not, it will be as if the Torah reader, and so on in the KIH Reka. And we have already awakened, from what is stated in the Ketubot (Ad, 2) that in every condition in them it is possible to fulfill it by a messenger, and from the KIH when they say to him, “Halutz, let her give you two hundred zuz,” his KShulchan is kosher even if she does not give it, because all conditions are fulfilled according to the KIH and the KIH, and there Moses commanded Joshua to give them the land, and he is the KShulchan of Moses in all KIH, who has conditions, but a KShulchan by a messenger of God does not have conditions in it. And here we find that the conditions of the KShulchan are beneficial even if he cannot fulfill the mitzvot of the KShulchan through a messenger, and as in the KIH we find about the Afikoman and the counting of the Omer, the KIH, and the KIH. I would be happy to know the level of the Shlita’s rabbi.
In all the conditions that a person stipulates between himself and himself for his actions, both for the sake of a mitzvah (Iruv, Taanit) and according to the authority, he does not need to stipulate according to the conditions of the sons of Gad and the sons of Reuven. Therefore, the question does not exist in principle. Even in matters of money between him and his friend, there is a disagreement among the Rishonim about whether the laws of conditions are necessary. However, in any condition between himself, the conditions of the 3rd and 4th centuries do not apply.


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מיכי Staff answered 3 years ago
Hello. A. It is not clear to me why the blessing of blowing the shofar is a blessing for the Haftza. After all, it is a blessing for the mitzvot, as in the Sifiya. Where does one distinguish between the blessings for the mitzvot, some of which are for the mitzvah and some for the Haftza?! It is possible that it could be explained that the Safiya’a intended to recite the blessing for the mitzvah to count the day but was mistaken in the minyan. So he recited the blessing for the correct mitzvah, but he performed it incorrectly (this is even more correct if we take the view that all the days of Safiya’a are one continuous mitzvah, and then all the days are like a mitzvah). But by replacing the shofar, he recited the blessing for the performance of a different mitzvah. According to my understanding, if he made a mistake in blowing the shofar and now wants to correct it, perhaps he does not need to recite the blessing again. According to your view, he probably does. There is even a division on this as well. on. The Harash explained that in their case, it is possible to fulfill it in a messenger in order to express his control over the thing (only on what he owns and is completely in his hands can he condition). But in the Kash and Afikoman, etc., what he cannot fulfill in a messenger is not due to a lack of control over the thing, but because they are commandments in his body. Therefore, in this case, there is a condition.

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