Reward and punishment in this world, prayers, prophecy, miracles
Hello,
I know you are concerned with these issues, and I wanted to know what you think about the following idea (I apologize for the length):
The Torah explicitly promises influence in this world regarding prayers, reward and punishment, and of course the phenomenon of prophecy, as well as visible miracles (such as the parting of the Red Sea).
In our time we are not familiar with these phenomena. The assumption is that in biblical times they did occur. We do not know when each phenomenon ceased, although in the case of prophecy it is quite clear.
The question is, if there was such a change, what was the reason for it. And that’s what I want to propose.
Let’s start with the period when the phenomena did occur.
We ask – was it really so every time the people of Israel sinned, the rains stopped? Did God always immediately hear the cry of the oppressed? Did the prophets always prophesy in a clear style and did their prophecies always come true immediately?
Obviously not, because otherwise all the Gentiles would convert, the people of Israel would not dare to sin – it simply wouldn’t be worthwhile, and belief in God would be without choice.
So it is clear to us that on the one hand, God Almighty wanted these phenomena to happen, for clear reasons, and on the other hand, it is clear that this cannot happen in a sweeping manner, because otherwise there would be no choice.
Therefore, it seems that even in the biblical period, things did come true, but not in a sweeping manner. Some of the phenomena, even in their origin, are vague: what is considered “if you hear,” about which period exactly certain prophecies were spoken, etc. Still, it is clear to us that they came true to a certain extent in the biblical period, unlike what we see today. So how was there still a choice in their time? Because people did not live by statistics and did not record data, did not make an exact comparison of when it rained and when it did not, and what was the behavior of the people of Israel in different years. Who died young and who was old, who underwent circumcision and who did not. To what extent did the prophecies of the prophets come true, compared to other phenomena such as the omens of knowledge or the prophets of the nations of the world. What were the miracles with us compared to the miracles that were occasionally told in other nations, etc.
Thus, God could act on a certain level (though not absolute), and yet still leave freedom of choice.
On the other hand, when humanity (gradually) adopted a more scientific view of the world, they began to research and document phenomena and to link them to their causes – God can no longer act in this way, because any such action, which exceeds statistics, would be an “open miracle” that would nullify free choice.
Let us return to the question of when these phenomena ceased. We have no information about most of them. Regarding prophecy, it is around the 6th century BC (the feasts of Zechariah and Malachi). This is the period of Thales, the first of the Greek sages, about two hundred years before Aristotle.
We can therefore say that the rise of scientific observation has eliminated these phenomena.
I would love to hear your opinion.
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It is possible, but the correlations over time are not convincing. These phenomena ceased long before we used statistics. Even today, when we have statistics, most believers are certain that there is a response and there are miracles.
I have offered an explanation for this that I think is very plausible. Look for divine involvement in the world here. For example, columns 280, 298, and more.
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