Roulette and Probability
A stupid question that has been bothering me for quite some time. In a game of roulette, there is the same probability of red numbers coming up as black numbers, and yet the red numbers always come up more than the black ones.
What is the reason for this?
Do you think it makes sense to bet on red more than black or is it an irrational move since the probability is the same?
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When I say there is the same probability of reds coming up as blacks, I mean there are the same number of red numbers as blacks, yet the ball lands on the redder numbers
(It's like rolling a dice where one of the numbers lands more often than the others)
So it's not the same probability. So, I didn't understand the question. If you have an unfair die that lands on a 6 80% of the time, would you bet on an odd outcome versus a 6, because there are three odd sides? Obviously, you're going after the probability and not the number of possibilities. Only when the distribution of all outcomes is equal is the probability determined by the number of possibilities.
Only in a sample is the probability of each outcome equal to 1/the number of probabilities.
The chance that two events will occur is also the product of the probabilities, only there is no dependence between them (the conditions of independence are met).
Many people get confused and reach misleading results.
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