Seed for nothing
What is the Rabbi’s position regarding the use of semen for nothing?
In Haredi society, this is a very big issue, but it really has no source in the Torah. Is this something that took root later? The punishments are as the Sages say? What is the Rabbi’s position on the matter?
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Do you think that minimal masturbation in a teenager could be considered rape, mercifully, similar to what you said about LGBT people?
I didn't understand what you answered here. There is no source in the Torah and the Sages spoke about it, these are known facts that the questioner also knew. The Sages also spoke about demons and the resurrection of the dead without having a source in the Torah. The question is normative for us, do we really need to avoid this even if the Sages have formal authority? Perhaps their ruling stems from a factual error and it is possible to ignore it in a conservative midrash, just as they ignore the prohibition against eating onions that have been outside all night?
Rape is not a binary concept. There is a continuum of levels of difficulty, but there is definitely a level of rape that is not easy. Is it a pity or not? He will decide that, not me.
Knowing you, I find it hard to believe that you didn't understand. This is a norm, not a fact. To the best of my judgment, they had no apparent error, and therefore their formal authority stands. The prohibition against eating onions is not a prohibition but a danger (just as leeks are not a decree but a concern). It is a purely factual matter. What is the point of this?
If you offer a suggestion of a factual error that was at the heart of the matter, it could be considered.
For example, at that time it was thought that there was a certain level of a living human being within a man's sperm even without fertilization, and therefore it was forbidden to kill such a human being for no reason. Today we know differently.
Even today we know exactly the same. The only difference is that today we know the scientific details better. Why is this relevant? What else do you assume that the basis of the prohibition is murder, but this is really not agreed upon and not clear. Already in the Sages there are sources that see this as adultery and not murder.
If it is because of murder, it is relevant because today we understand that it is very far from a small baby to fertilization. The woman is not an incubator.
And regarding the idea of adultery, I don't have to deal with all the explanations and opinions, isn't that how it works?
I am starting from the assumption that this has no source in the Torah. It is not a law of Moses from Sinai. It is something that is forbidden in all Abrahamic religions and even in the ancient world, apparently they considered it something immoral, otherwise it is not clear how widespread it was. Today we can't really think of an immoral reason for leonane because it is a substance that contains only half of the chromosomes that a living creature requires to develop at all. Certainly when it is permissible to have relations with a woman who can no longer get pregnant, etc.
I think this is where I end the discussion. This is a really unfounded insistence.
Interesting article on the subject:
https://tshuvot.wordpress.com/category/%d7%91%d7%92%d7%93%d7%a8%d7%99-%d7%94%d7%a9%d7%97%d7%aa%d7%aa-%d7%96%d7%a8%d7%a2-%d7%9c%d7%91%d7%98%d7%9c%d7%94-%d7%95%d7%91%d7%92%d7%93%d7%a8-%d7%90%d7%a0%d7%95%d7%a1-%d7%9b%d7%a9%d7%90%d7%99%d7%a0/
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