Swallowing utensils
Rabbi, I saw that someone asked here about Dror Pixler’s experiment and the Rabbi answered that if there is indeed no ingestion in modern-day utensils (say, stainless steel), then there is no need to treat these utensils as bodies, etc. My question is, is it possible to act this way in practice – for example, if I am abroad, can I cook in utensils owned by the homeowners who do not keep kosher after I wash them properly?
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What's the deal with the matter of time of need - why would there be room for leniency only in times of need - if the materials really don't absorb and emit? Apparently, this should be okay even in the beginning, right?
Because there is a problem of authority to change prevailing laws in Israel, especially when there is no consensus among contemporary jurists.
The authority to change the halakha is apparently unrelated to the subject of the case, the matter is clearly a reality with tools that did not exist in the time of Chazal?
Not entirely simple. They set the limits of ingestion in a blanket manner and it seems to be a general principle, except for glass. The question is whether there is no plug here.
Beyond that, the question also arises regarding tools that existed in their time and today we have the possibility of testing ingestion.
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://www.inn.co.il/News/News.aspx/408249&ved=2ahUKEwi5udvu-PXjAhUDxcQBHUdID9AQFjACegQICRAB&usg=AOvVaw2LdV4t3o3Sm86ZdMjkJJSX
Rabbi Eliezer Melamed writes that the invention of soap stopped swallowing.
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