The Parable of the Stones
Hi Rabbi Michi,
You wrote in the parable of the stones that the traveler faces 2 options: a directed hand or a random one.
The question is, if a person designed the stones and made a mistake, for example, he wanted to write “Hi, hello” and it came out “Scotland,” is that a coincidence?
A better example is Coca-Cola. Can we say that it was created by chance because it was originally intended to be a medicine, or was it planned by the person who created it? (Again, because he wanted to create a medicine in the first place)
Thank you very much.
I didn’t understand the question. Is this a dictionary question? Decide what you think the word ‘case’ means and answer it yourself. If you are asking this about a specific NPF, please specify it and then maybe we can discuss.
Sorry for the inaccuracy, my question was, is it possible that there are more than 2 options?
For example, is there a designer who created on purpose, and there is a designer who created by chance, are they 2 different options?
Because if so, there are supposedly more than 2 options.
You are no longer accurate here. Clearly there is a situation that the designer created by chance. This is a simple factual statement. What is the question?
Is there a situation where there are more than 2 options?
And if so, how does this affect Richard's parable?
Suppose a person planned to write peace with the stones, and he got Scotneld, does this affect the traveler? Because apparently it changes the situation.
Correct me if I'm wrong?
I don't understand what you want. Repeat his argument and tell me whether you think it makes a difference or not (hint: no). Then if you have a question, ask.
Okay, I understand. Let's say I'm the traveler and I see the sign that was designed by someone and it says peace, I just won't pay attention and wait for the announcer, so there's no difference here.
Regarding the parable, how am I supposed to know that God did indeed design the senses and put them into practice in a precise way?
The argument you made in the first sentence is that maybe he did it to confuse us, and even if he did, we have no way of knowing.
Does this affect or change anything? In our attitude towards the relationship of consciousness to reality?
You are not supposed. This is from the rumors of a revelatory or theological argument. I have detailed it blood. See in two carts in the Enlightenment and in the fourth notebook (fourth conversation in the first testament) at length.
Leave a Reply
Please login or Register to submit your answer
