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The validity of God’s command

שו”תCategory: faithThe validity of God’s command
asked 4 years ago

I’ll present everything for convenience. I think it can also be understood from reading the last question alone.

My original question:
In the fourth notebook, you provide proof that there is a dependence between the claims “moral judgment has meaning” and “God exists.”
It seems that only two possibilities have been raised that allow for the existence of morality: subjective morality and (let’s call it) “divine” morality. I think there is a third possibility that would also allow for meaning in moral judgment.
It is possible that there is a fixed system of laws, perhaps we could even call it primordial, and according to which morality is determined and according to which we can judge what is a moral act. I don’t think we need to say that God created this system of laws…
Or did you mean that it has no binding force towards us if it was created by God?

The answer:
Indeed. The fact that there are laws does not mean that I will obey them or that I must obey them. This is the naturalistic fallacy. Beyond that, even if such laws exist, there is room for the question of who or what created them? And even if they are ancient, I explained that there is the principle of sufficient reason.

question:
I didn’t understand why if the system of moral laws was created by God, then it is binding on us? (By the way, was it created by God, according to the Rabbi?)
(Why can’t the existence of that theoretical system of laws be justified in the same way that the existence of its creator – God – can be justified?)

answer:
The legal system is not an entity but rules. The rules are binding by virtue of someone who established them. Without such someone, the rules have no validity.
My fundamental argument is that in the absence of God, moral laws have no validity. I personally also believe that if God did create the system, it has validity. There are of course those who argue about that. But anyone who argues about the fundamental argument is simply mistaken.

question:
Why does God have more binding force than the rules (- the moral law system) themselves? In other words – what binding force does God have that the law system cannot have?

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0 Answers
מיכי Staff answered 4 years ago

Rules have no binding force unless they are established by an entity with authority. The fact that there are rules does not bind anyone. So what if they do exist? This is the naturalistic fallacy. I can create many different sets of rules, will you necessarily obey them all?

ח' replied 4 years ago

And why would I obey them if another entity determined them?

מיכי Staff replied 4 years ago

I already answered. It's your decision. But when there is no being then clearly there is nothing to obey.
The argument is that if there is a valid morality, there must necessarily be an entity underlying it that gives it validity. I didn't say that if there is an entity then the commandment must necessarily have validity.

ח' replied 4 years ago

Maybe I was wrong when I tried to ask about this move. I will try to touch on the central point:

Why would you or I want to listen to God's command?

מיכי Staff replied 4 years ago

I don't know of any explanation for this in terms of a more understandable principle. It should be self-evident. If there is an entity that created us and the world and demands things from us, that has validity. I don't see what should be more understandable that could explain it. See my article on gratitude and at the end of the fifth notebook.

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