Time for Gramma in Tzitzit
Hello Rabbi. In the issue of offerings of the 34th chapter, there appears a discussion of the method of Rav Yehuda, who tied a tzitzit on his wife’s clothes and would bless the tallit every morning, and the Gemara asks, “From the rabbis of Kasber, it is a positive commandment that the time is not a grama, but a mother blesses every turban, as Rabbi, who puts on tefillin every time he puts them on, blesses them… Is it not true that Rav Yehuda is modest and does not wear robes all day long, and from the word turban? Because of the two night covers for the day cover, Rashi explains that he had two fringed tallit, one for the day and one for the night (and he would wrap himself in the night fringed tallit during the morning Ashurat when he sat down to study). If so, I find it difficult to understand how, according to his method, why he blessed only in the morning, since if tzitzit is a MA, not a ZAG, and as we can see from the fact that he put tzitzit on his wife’s clothes and that he would put tzitzit on his night cover, then why didn’t he also bless the night tallit, since night is also a time for tzitzit.
I also had difficulty further in the Gemara’s words there regarding the obligatory night covering according to R. S., because the s. d. t. s
Likewise, in the continuation of the words of the Toss, there are the words of the Yerushalmi in Kiddushin: “What is the MA that is not the zag, such as loss and sending away the nest and a turban and a tzitzit? And the R’s exempted women from the tzitzit, the R’s said to them, Do you agree with me that it is a positive commandment that the time is obligatory, since a night covering is exempt? Rabbi Ila said, “If the special tallit for the day and night was obligatory…” And here it is difficult for me, isn’t it, if according to the Rabbis we are not obligated for a night covering alone, then certainly in their opinion the tzitzit is the time is obligatory, since there is a time that is not obligatory. And what does Rabbi Ila answer that the Rabbis oblige for a night covering, oblige for what? And when? In other words, if the intention is that it is obligatory for the tzitzit, then we say that it is because it is a day covering and the fact that it also serves as a night covering does not detract from the obligation created due to its use during the day. And if the intention is that then it is obligatory for the blessing also at night, then why are we not also blessed for a tallit that is a night covering only?
Many thanks in advance to my teachers and rabbi for the answer.
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- See Genesis, chapter 20.
- It is possible that the exemption for a night cover during the day is because the cover is intended for the night. It should be remembered that the tzitzit is draped over the garment and is not taken down and put back up every time. Therefore, they determined that only a day cover is required because it is usually worn during the day.
- If in the special covering of the day and night they are obligatory, it is proven from this that it is not the night that causes but the covering. Therefore, what the covering of the night is exempt from is not because of the time (night) but because of the type of covering. Therefore, it is not a time of the grave. Exactly your question 1 which claimed that if the covering causes and not the time, it is not a time of the grave. It is true that there is an assumption here that the obligation of the special covering of the day and night indicates that the night is not exempt. In other words, there is a perception here that it is not the day that is obligatory (as you assume in your question) but the night is exempt. Therefore, if the covering of the day and night is obligatory, it means that the night is not exempted but the type of covering. And, does this reconcile with the method presented in the question mentioned in question 1, which sees the type of covering as an indication of the time of the grave? I think it should be reconciled, and so on.
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Why did you send the question four times?
Syrian. By mistake.
I wanted to ask again why the rabbis do not bless the night cover if in their opinion it is not a mitzvah that time is the cause. And what the rabbi wrote “it is proven from this that it is not the night that is the cause but the cover” I do not understand, since it depends on time. And if night cover is exempt, then it is proven that it is because the night is an exempt time. And if so, it turns out that the rabbis also have a positive mitzvah that time is the cause.
But the night is not exempt because the covering of day and night is not exempt. And the reason that the covering of night is exempt is probably because of the type of covering and not because of the time.
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