translation

Hello, Your Honor, I would like to ask about translation.

Additions to Megillah, 23, 2:

“We have not changed except in places where there are no translators – and on this we rely that we do not translate the Haftorah for all days of the year, as well as the Parashiot.”

Tosafot on Blessings, 8, a-b:

“Two readings and one translation – there are interpreters, and the rule for their foreign language is like a translation that sometimes interprets. For just as the translation interprets the Hebrew, so they understand from the Hebrew. And it does not seem that the translation interprets what cannot be learned from the Hebrew, as they have forgotten how many times Rav Yosef said (Megillah, page 3). If it were not for the translation, the reader would not know from what he said. Therefore, it is not possible to say it in any language a third time, except in the language of the translation.”

“And even Atarot and Divon, etc. – according to Rashi, even Atarot and Divon, which does not have a translation that needs to be read three times in Hebrew. And it is difficult for me to take Atarot and Divon, which has a Jerusalem translation. He could have said Reuven and Shimon or a verse from the last chapter that does not have a translation at all. And it must be said that because he took Atarot and Divon, which does not have a known translation but a Jerusalem translation and needs to be read three times in Hebrew, it is better to read it a third time in the translation.”

1. Is it known that these additions are the same additions in the Megillah and the Blessings?

2. Is it necessary to say that the additions to the Megillah were determined in accordance with their opinion about the essence of the translation?
Or can it be said that this determination was made regardless of their understanding of the essence of the translation? (Even if they believed that a public translation must only be an onkelos, and in a place where it is customary to translate, a translator translates regardless of the public’s understanding of Aramaic, and that the onkelos translation was given at Sinai, and only that must be read in two readings and one translation, and furthermore, it is still possible to say that only in some places did they customarily translate and in others not)
 
3. A question from the Rabbi that is somewhat related to the topic. I would like to understand how it is possible for the one who is coming to the Torah to recite a blessing without reading aloud (or even without reading at all, in some opinions) and the one who reads is the one who reads aloud, whether the opinion is that the blessing was established in honor of the Torah that is read in public reading by various people or whether it was established for the sake of the obligation of the mitzvah. I would appreciate it if the Rabbi could explain how this mechanism is halachically possible in terms of the blessing and if there is something similar to it?