You shall not stand for the blood of your neighbor.
Hello Rabbi, is it possible to learn that this verse teaches that the prohibition not to stand also applies to Gentiles, because if it were only for Israel, then it would have been necessary to write, “You shall not stand for the blood of your brother,” just as the Sabbath of loss teaches that a Gentile has no mitzvah to return, but only to a Gentile?
According to the Sages and the Poskim, the prohibition does not apply to Gentiles (duties between a person and his fellow exist only towards the one who does the deed with you). Although there is room to interpret that they were talking about the Gentiles of the past who were worshipers of God and most of them behaved in a very inhumane manner, and today all of this has changed. That is my opinion (and so does the Meiri). The same law should be considered regarding a resident alien, and simply according to many opinions, positive obligations between a person and his fellow exist regarding him as well. According to the Sages, your neighbor is an expression for Israel only, like your brother.
According to the rabbi's sharp division between morality and Torah. One can leave the halakha intact and claim that it deals only with the religious level, right? Apparently, you assume some kind of correspondence between the levels here.
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