The Logic of *Kal Va-Chomer*: III. A Note on Maimonides’ Approach (Column 737)
With God’s help
Disclaimer: This post was translated from Hebrew using AI (ChatGPT 5 Thinking), so there may be inaccuracies or nuances lost. If something seems unclear, please refer to the Hebrew original or contact us for clarification.
In the previous two columns I discussed the “relevance assumption” lurking behind *kal va-chomer* (a fortiori) arguments. Here I continue analyzing *kal va-chomer* and wish to examine it in light of Maimonides’ approach to “Divrei Sofrim” (rabbinic law) and in light of my remarks in the two previous columns.
Pilpul of *Kal Va-Chomer* and the Conclusions
We dealt with an argument based on two data points of the following type:
Object/Rule | Tzitzit | Mezuzah |
Lintel | ? | 1 |
Four-cornered garment | 1 | ? |
The argument seeks to obligate a lintel in tzitzit or a garment in mezuzah by force of a *kal va-chomer*: if a garment, which is exempt from mezuzah, is obligated in tzitzit—then a lintel, which is obligated in mezuzah, is it not all the more so that it should be obligated in tzitzit?! And conversely: if a lintel, which is exempt from tzitzit, is obligated in mezuzah—then a garment, which is obligated in tzitzit, is it not all the more so that it should be obligated in mezuzah?! When the table contains only two data points, one can always run the *kal va-chomer* in both directions.
In the following column I brought several exceptions where the Talmud does employ a *kal va-chomer* on the basis of two data points. To explain why these cases do not contradict each other, I explained the *kal va-chomer* in a “layers (slides)” model: one layer (the textual) contains the halakhic data appearing in Scripture, and the second (the measured/derivative layer) contains those learned from the *kal va-chomer*. The claim was that even if we fill the missing cells with a 1, in truth we should write (0,1): 0 means it does not appear in Scripture, and 1 means it is true after the *kal va-chomer*. Therefore the 1 cannot be counted within the *kal va-chomer* argument itself. My assumption is that *kal va-chomer* operates only on Scriptural data.
The resulting table is the following (instead of “Torah” and “food” I left here the lintel and the garment in the table—despite the lack of real relevance—just to make it easier to follow):
Object/Rule | Tzitzit | Mezuzah |
Lintel | (0,1) | 1 |
Four-cornered garment | 1 | (0,1) |
However, a difficulty arises here: the result of the *kal va-chomer* undermines its assumptions. For example, we assume that mezuzah is more stringent than tzitzit (from the top row), yet on the bottom row we see the reverse: a garment is explicitly obligated in tzitzit by the Torah, whereas in mezuzah it is obligated only by force of the *kal va-chomer* (textually it is exempt).
I answered that each cell in such a table can be filled in three ways and not just two: 0 – exempt; 1 – obligated; X – not relevant (a lintel is irrelevant to tzitzit, or a garment to mezuzah). In a case with only two Scriptural data points, the starting point is that the lacunae express X, i.e., the rule is irrelevant (and not 0, a halakhic exemption from the rule). But this solves the problem only for a table with two data points. In such a *kal va-chomer* it is indeed hard to accept running it in both directions (and usually one chooses, by sevara, which direction is correct). Yet the difficulty remains in an ordinary *kal va-chomer* built on three data points:
Object/Rule | Tzitzit | Mezuzah |
Lintel | 0 | 1 |
Four-cornered garment | 1 | (1,?) |
Looking at the Scriptural data, we still see that the hierarchy in the top row (mezuzah is more stringent than tzitzit) does not hold in the second row. The same is true, of course, for the columns.
I explained there that in the “layers” picture the problem is resolved, since the assumptions of *kal va-chomer* are based on the Scriptural data alone (the first component in parentheses). My assumption was that if the result (0,1) depicted a degree of stringency between 0 and 1, it would indeed generate an internal contradiction within the *kal va-chomer* argument. But I claimed that these parentheses do not in fact express an intermediate level of stringency; rather, they are two independent components, each of which must be evaluated on its own. From the perspective of the halakhic result (after the *kal va-chomer*), the hierarchy is preserved, since in the end the learned case (*lamed*) truly is more stringent.
Maimonides’ Approach
In his Second Root, Maimonides presents a very novel position regarding laws derived from the hermeneutic rules:
Since this is so, not everything the Sages derived by analogy from the Thirteen Rules is to be said as having been stated to Moses at Sinai; nor should we say regarding everything we find in the Talmud that they base upon one of the Thirteen Rules that it is rabbinic. For at times it is an accepted interpretation. Therefore, what is proper is this: anything you do not find written in the Torah but you find in the Talmud that they derived by one of the Thirteen Rules—if they themselves explained and said that “this is Torah itself” or “this is from the Torah,” then it should be counted, for the recipients said it is from the Torah. But if they did not explain this and did not speak about it—then it is rabbinic, for there is no verse pointing to it.
That is, his view is that a rule derived from one of the hermeneutic rules that does not support/confirm an existing law but creates a novel law has the status of rabbinic (derabbanan). As is well known, Nahmanides (the Ramban) sharply attacks him on this point (see our book Yishlach Shoreshav, in the essay on the Second Root), and he presents many difficulties with this innovative view—a view that almost all Rishonim and Aharonim rejected outright. The issue is so difficult and so novel that among later authorities a position took hold that Maimonides did not mean to say these are rabbinic laws. Clearly, even according to him, they are de’oraita; their source, however, is from the Sages. He is speaking about the question of source, not the question of legal force. Yet in our book we demonstrated that this is not so, and that Maimonides truly intends to claim these are rabbinic laws. Our contention was that the question of force (status) is based on the question of source: when a law has no clear source in the plain sense of the Torah but is derived by derash, its force is like that of a rabbinic law.
This means that, according to Maimonides, the parentheses (0,1) in the tables above—where the first component expresses the question of source (whether there is a textual source) and the second component expresses the question of force (the law in practice)—can in fact be translated into an intermediate degree between 0 and 1, e.g., 0.5. This reflects Maimonides’ view that a law learned by *kal va-chomer* is less stringent than a law explicitly written in the Torah.
But now we obtain the following table:
Object/Rule | Tzitzit | Mezuzah |
Lintel | 0 | 1 |
Four-cornered garment | 1 | (0.5,?) |
Before the derivation, the data direct us to perform a *kal va-chomer*, with the row-argument assuming that mezuzah is more stringent than tzitzit. But the result of the *kal va-chomer* is that mezuzah is lighter than tzitzit, for mezuzah on a garment has stringency 0.5 whereas tzitzit on a garment has stringency 1. The same holds for the relationship between lintel and garment (in the column-argument, which, as we saw in previous columns, is not a different argument from the row-argument).
Thus, the difficulty we saw above regarding *kal va-chomer* intensifies according to Maimonides. Unlike all the other hermeneutic rules, *kal va-chomer* rests on the assumption (generalization) that the learned case (lamed) is more stringent than the teaching case (melamed). Yet the melamed is a rule explicitly appearing in Scripture, while the lamed is a rule emerging from the *kal va-chomer* itself—i.e., it arises from derash—and is therefore lighter. Consequently, the conclusion of the *kal va-chomer* contradicts its assumptions. Put differently: the result of the *kal va-chomer* constitutes a rebuttal (*pircha*) to the very inference: what of the learned case, seeing that the force of the rule in it is lighter (since it comes from derash) than in the teaching case (which is explicit in Scripture)?
The Textual Solution—and Its Undoing
One might consider here as well the textual solution: if we assume that *kal va-chomer* is based on Scriptural data and does not address the practical law, then we can relate only to the left component in the parentheses. On this proposal, *kal va-chomer* is a textual, not a substantive, rule and does not reflect true relations of stringency between the data. But now this already begins to look very problematic, because in practice—halakhically—the learned case comes out lighter than the teaching case, which is effectively a rebuttal to the *kal va-chomer*’s assumption.
This is seen even more clearly if we compare *kal va-chomer* to “kol she-ken,” i.e., an a fortiori based on a single datum. For example: “Behold, the children of Israel did not listen to me; how then will Pharaoh listen to me, and I am of uncircumcised lips?” Here the relation of stringency is grounded in reason, not in Scriptural data, and therefore it is clearly about actual stringency. It is implausible that in a measured/derivative *kal va-chomer* based on three data points we would ignore altogether the true relations of stringency between the learned and the teaching cases.
This becomes sharper still in light of what I explained above according to Maimonides, who links the question of source with the question of force. For him, the source of the law determines its force. If it lacks a source in the Torah, its force is lower. Accordingly, it is even harder to sever the textual question from the halakhic question and to claim that *kal va-chomer* is based on relations among data as they appear in Scripture, detached from the question of their force. On the contrary, in his view the reference to the text is only because it serves as an indication of force.
On Force and Stringency
I think we must distinguish between a law’s force and its stringency. The force of laws may be de’oraita or derabbanan. But their stringency does not necessarily mirror their force. In the end I will argue here that, according to Maimonides, the source of a law indeed determines its force, but not its stringency. The force of a law derived by derash is indeed like that of a rabbinic law, but its stringency can be full—like that of a de’oraita. Therefore, the relations of stringency are preserved even after the *kal va-chomer*, and there is no contradiction to its assumptions. In other words,
To understand this better, I will preface a principle I have discussed elsewhere (see at length in my essay on sevarot). In the essay “Teshuvah,” in his Collected Essays, Ra”u notes that there are two planes in performing a mitzvah or transgressing a prohibition: the command and the essence. The assumption is that each mitzvah is meant to achieve some benefit, and each prohibition prevents some harm that the prohibition comes to avert. Accordingly, one who performs a mitzvah accomplishes two positive things: he obeys the command, and he brings about some positive outcome (which is the reason we were commanded). Similarly regarding one who transgresses a prohibition: he rebels against the command and causes harm. Thus, for example, Tosafot ha-Rosh (Kiddushin 31a) explains the principle that “one who is commanded and does [is] greater than one who is not commanded and does” as follows:
“Greater is one who is commanded and does.” Although we say in Hagigah chap. 2, by way of parable, that if a king told his servants to rise early at his door—to whom is there more reason to be grateful? To the women, whose way is not to rise early as men do…—that is not like our case. There both are commanded, and one who does what is not his way is better when he does. And the reason here is that one who is commanded and does is preferable because he constantly worries and is pained, lest he transgress, and he must subdue his inclination more than one who is not commanded, who may desist if he wishes. Moreover, the Holy One, blessed be He, needs nothing from the commandments; rather, He says and His will is done. Therefore, the one who is commanded and does fulfills the will of his Creator; but one who is not commanded and does—regarding him it is not apt to say that he does his Creator’s will, for He did not command him anything. Nevertheless, there is reward.”
In his second explanation he writes that one who is commanded and acts simply achieves both benefits, and therefore is greater (the reward reflects that he performed a positive act).
The “essence” says that a given mitzvah brings some benefit (and a prohibition prevents harm). This is a good reason to fulfill it, but it does not create an obligation. Our obligation to fulfill the commandments stems from the command. From this we may conclude that the stringency of a mitzvah is not necessarily tied to the command, but to the essence. The greater the harm a prohibition causes, the more stringent it is. And the greater the benefit, the more important (stringent) the mitzvah. By contrast, the force of the mitzvah is determined by the command: if there is a command in the Torah, it is de’oraita; if not—then it is rabbinic.
In the essay cited I argued that there is no direct linkage between command and essence. For example, among de’oraita commandments there are lighter and more severe ones, even though all are commanded in the same way. Their legal force and status are identical, since all are commanded and are de’oraita; but their stringency certainly differs (in accordance with the benefit or harm involved). Thus, “You shall not murder” is the most severe prohibition, yet its force is like that of any de’oraita prohibition (for it is written in the Torah as an ordinary prohibition). One may discuss whether the punishment reflects a prohibition’s stringency or not (see, for example, here and in this work), but command is only a necessary, not sufficient, condition for liability to punishment. Moreover, there may be commandments severe in essence for which, for various reasons, there is no command (see the end of the essay on sevarot).
We saw above that, according to Maimonides, laws derived from derash are “Divrei Sofrim.” I have explained in several places that in such laws there is essence but no command (for according to Maimonides, derash does not uncover something latent in the Torah itself but expands what is written there; see my essay on the Second Root). Thus, for example, fear/awe of Torah scholars is a de’oraita obligation derived from an inclusion: “You shall fear the Lord your God”—to include Torah scholars (Pesachim 22). This means there is no command regarding awe of Torah scholars, but in essence there is such an obligation and its stringency can be like that of an ordinary de’oraita (which does carry a command). There is a reason we were instructed to revere Torah scholars; i.e., there is benefit in such awe. Therefore there is essence here. This is in contrast to rabbinic laws, which are laws without essence (there is an obligation to fulfill them, but from the Torah’s perspective there is no harm or benefit in their performance or transgression—otherwise the Torah itself would have commanded them). See on this in columns 582 – 583.
In my essay on the Second Root I inferred from here that even according to Maimonides, doubt in a law derived by derash is treated stringently, despite its being rabbinic. I explained that the halakhot of doubt are set according to stringency, not command; and in a derash-derived law, the stringency is like that of a de’oraita, only its force is lower (for there is no command). One implication: according to Maimonides there is no punishment for violating it (since the threshold condition—a command—is lacking, and there is no punishment without warning).
Thus we learn that a law’s force is not identical with its stringency. Its force is measured on the de’oraita/derabbanan plane according to whether there is a command; but its stringency is a continuous matter with varying degrees that are not necessarily dependent on the command. They depend on the act’s consequences—the harm or benefit it causes.
A similar idea I proposed in column 679, which dealt with the relationship between a law’s halakhic force and the strength of the obligation to fulfill it. I showed there that the strength of the obligation to fulfill may differ from its halakhic force. In the terminology presented here, it is more accurate to say that a law’s stringency (its essence) does not depend on whether there is a command. The strength of the obligation to fulfill is determined by the command (for only a command creates obligation), but the stringency depends on the essence—i.e., on the act’s consequences. Therefore, with all de’oraita laws there is the same strength of duty to obey, since all are commanded in the Torah and there is a duty to obey the Torah’s commands. But the stringency varies according to the essence. Moreover, it is possible that the duty to fulfill rabbinic laws is identical to the duty to fulfill de’oraita laws (certainly according to Maimonides, who grounds the duty to obey rabbinic laws in the verse “You shall not deviate”; see columns 652 and 443).
Back to *Kal Va-Chomer* According to Maimonides
We can now understand that even according to Maimonides, it is not the case that the result of the *kal va-chomer* undermines or contradicts its assumptions. We saw that a *kal va-chomer* table according to Maimonides looks like this:
Object/Rule | Tzitzit | Mezuzah |
Lintel | 0 | 1 |
Four-cornered garment | 1 | (0.5,?) |
The difficulty was that, according to Maimonides, the rule in the lower-right cell is lighter than 1 (we marked it 0.5), creating a reversed hierarchy in the bottom row compared to the top row, and in the left column compared to the right.
We can now understand that this is not the case. Maimonides does not say that the stringency of a law learned by *kal va-chomer* is lighter than that of a law explicit in the Torah. What he says is only that the strength of the obligation to fulfill it is lower (hence he treats it as rabbinic).
This can take us to two different formulations:
- Following the distinction I drew between the textual plane (whether the law is written in the Torah) and the halakhic plane: one could say that *kal va-chomer* is made on the basis of a law’s force (command and Scriptural appearance) and not on the basis of its stringency. Therefore, even if the product of the *kal va-chomer* is a law less stringent, this does not contradict the *kal va-chomer*’s assumptions. It is less stringent, but its force is identical.
But this formulation is implausible, since, as we saw, according to Maimonides the opposite is true: the stringency of laws derived by derash can be like that of ordinary de’oraita laws, while it is their force that is lower.
It therefore seems better to explain the reverse:
- Indeed, a law learned by *kal va-chomer* has lower force than ordinary de’oraita laws. But its stringency is not necessarily less than theirs, for the *kal va-chomer* assumes that it is actually more stringent (its consequences are no less grave than those of the de’oraita law that teaches about it). We saw that, for Maimonides, derash expands what is written in the Torah rather than uncovering what is within it; therefore, according to Maimonides, the learned law of the *kal va-chomer* does not carry an actual command, whereas the teaching law, of course, does. Nevertheless, the stringency of the learned law is naturally greater than that of the teaching law—that is the very basis of the *kal va-chomer*. Hence the result of the *kal va-chomer* does not contradict the generalization on which it rests, for even in the halakhic plane the law learned by *kal va-chomer* is more stringent than the teaching law.
Of course, according to this proposal Maimonides would hold that the *kal va-chomer* inference is based on the stringency of the given laws, not on their force. In other words, the *kal va-chomer* is made in the halakhic (substantive) plane and not in the textual plane (as I suggested in previous columns to explain certain kinds of two-datum *kal va-chomer*).
One implication of this proposal is that there will be situations in which we have a *kal va-chomer* data table (i.e., a table with three data points as we saw), where the upper-right cell is 0 because there is no Scriptural command—and nonetheless we will not perform a *kal va-chomer*. This could occur if, for some reason, we understand that that cell concerns a law that is very stringent (and the reason the Torah did not command it is circumstantial, as I noted above). In such a case we cannot perform a *kal va-chomer*, since on my proposal the *kal va-chomer* is based on relations of stringency and not on relations of force. Note that under the previous proposal, which assumes that the *kal va-chomer* inference is based on force and not on stringency (i.e., that it operates in the textual plane), we would perform a *kal va-chomer* even in such a case.
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Since the section on what to teach that the law does not appear explicitly in it is a general section on all qu'ran, then it is clear that in fact a degree of ease and substance was renewed for the Epoch from this section (a kind of lex specialis). Why do you think an explanation for this innovation is necessary?
The question is not what to do in practice. It is clear that one must study the Koran because it is a measure of preaching. But the question is twofold: 1. What. is the logic in this measure? If it is more severe, why is it not more severe? Alternatively, if it is less severe, then it is not more severe. 2. Ostensibly, this is a rejection of the Maimonides' method that what is learned from the Koran is more lenient.
According to the law, there is no punishment from the law, but it seems that they do make a deduction from the punishment (in search of someone who is liable to death) "What about the shot, someone who is liable to death for it," etc. This means that the conclusion of the first and second degree still refutes its premises. What would you say to that?
I didn't understand the question. How do you see here that the extreme case is interpreting its premises?
A. The difference in punishment here is not related to the code itself but to a side law (foreign law). This is a deduction like any other deduction.
B. And even if it were related to the code, this is not a deduction based on its premises. The deduction is that the Torah wrote a punishment for the learner and there is no punishment for the learner (and even if a prohibition is learned in the code, there will be no punishment here).
Please explain more to me. Just as you suggested that you explain what is explicitly written and therefore more severe, so you can explain what is explicitly punished and therefore more severe, so you can't learn a prohibition without punishment. Perhaps the formulation of the explanation based on its assumptions is inappropriate, but it is still a general explanation, like the explanation you suggested in the column about a matter that is not explicitly stated in the Torah. This seemingly shows that there is a problem with such a general explanation. And when you learn, let alone permission and exemption, then even the explanation about a matter that is explicitly stated in the Torah is not an explanation.
I lost you.
How can one explain what is forbidden to teach since it is explicitly written? After all, that takes away all the rabbinic principles. The argument is that the rabbinic principle is not written because it can be learned in the rabbinic sense. Therefore, it is not a rabbinic principle.
I also did not understand the rabbinic principle that you propose about a prohibition without punishment: what is forbidden to teach since there is a punishment in it. Do you mean that there is no punishment in rabbinic because we learned in the rabbinic sense? (This is not the rabbinic principle that you quoted. There it is a side law.) Well, that is what I dealt with in the column on the Rambam's method in general (the distinction between severity and validity).
And perhaps your intention is to expand what I asked about the Rambam, and to ask this about all the rabbinic principles, since everyone agrees that punishments are not part of the law (=rabbinic principle)?
So I will answer as I answered in Rambam (the distinction between severity and force). Beyond that, what is not punished by law is not necessarily a kohl. After all, there is an explanation that there are no punishments precisely because the lesson is too severe for that punishment.
In short, I don't understand.
I did intend to expand the question you asked about Maimonides to all the methods. And I intended to doubt the question itself, since the entire separate thread here deals with this doubt. The Pirka that I quoted only shows that Pirka is made from punishment, meaning that punishment is harsh.
I did not understand your answers to this difficulty. One answer you said that you would divide between severity and force, meaning that the learned man is of the same severity but with a lower force? But a difference in punishment is a difference in severity, after all, making him Pirka.
A second answer you said that the learned man did not deserve this punishment. First of all, it is difficult for me to explain because they said this (in the Gemara, not the latter) about exile that atones, but where did they say this about court punishments of flogging and death, and in particular about the most severe death, which in the Bible is not more severe than this. And we can also examine this answer if we can block the student from evil and above, find a student who is easier than him whose punishment is a whipping and find a student who is more severe than him whose punishment is also a whipping, and then it is impossible to say that this student did not deserve the whipping. Although how to find such a situation, perhaps we should ask the question of the Rabbi Deutsch.
I answered that the severity is usually an indication of severity, even if not always. Therefore, it is possible to exclude the existence of a punishment, and then the burden of proof that here the severity is apparent and the punishment is only because of the severity is on the preacher himself.
The absence of punishment because its severity is not sufficient is one of the two explanations in the commentators regarding the absence of punishments from the law. There is even a column of mine on this (from the Rashi and the Qasr).
I have repeated the matter and with your permission I will repeat it in writing and at length. If I have repeated it for no reason, I apologize, but I doubt it will be useful.
A. The Rambam said that what is learned from a lecture is the words of the scribes. You said that you proved that the Rambam intended that what is learned from a lecture is truly different from the Torah in consequence. The first interpretation was that what is explained in the Torah is more severe. And on this you made it difficult, therefore, to make it more severe from three data, and to refute what the teacher teaches, since it is explained in the Torah, meaning that the teacher is more severe and not easier. "The result of the more severe and more severe constitutes a refutation of the inference itself: what to teach, since the validity of the law in it is lighter (since it comes from a lecture)." And on the basis of this, you qualified your interpretation of the Rambam and said that what is learned from a lecture is always as severe as what is explained, except that in terms of validity there is a difference between the explicit and the prescribed, and the more severe and more severe is not affected by validity.
B. I am trying to argue against this question, "The result of the minor and major constitutes a hindrance to the inference itself." Even if the explanation of the question is a question, so is the measure and nothing more. Voices whose cause is the law of minor and major itself are not considered voices but a side effect.
C. And how do I argue against the question - I found it difficult not only according to your renewed understanding of the Rambam, but it is difficult for all scholars.
D. And thus the question that the result constitutes a hindrance to the inference is difficult for all scholars. Maktoum 17:2 "What is the tenth of the minor that they eat except for the wall that is broken, not even the firstborn. Etc. And why do they warn of the law? Etc. It is a prohibition by a law." And Rashi interpreted "A warning by a minor and major for the prohibition by a law, not for the whipping." That is, in teaching there is no and whipping, and we learn to teach that there will be a prohibition by a law and without whipping. And if so, it is difficult, the result of the minor and major constitutes a deduction for the inference itself, what about the one who teaches because he is ill, saying that the one who teaches because he is not ill?
E. There was a place to say that a punishment is not a deduction and therefore it is not made a deduction. But we found in Sacrifices 17, "What about the one who throws a stone because a stranger is liable to death for it?" In other words, they do make a deduction from the punishment. And if so, the question arises, "the result of the minor and major constitutes a deduction for the inference" for all the scholars. Only when the absence of punishment in the lesson is due to the laws of minor and major themselves, then it is not considered valid in the lesson (beatings), but when the absence of punishment is an independent law in the lesson, then it is considered valid in the lesson (sacrifices).
F. And the difficulty in short is, in sacrifices, a deduction is made from the gap in the punishment, whereas in blows, a deduction is not made from the gap in the punishment. And apparently the difference is that in sacrifices the difference in punishment is self-evident, and therefore it is made into a parable, but in plagues the lack of punishment itself is due to a side effect of the law of the minor and major that we study, and therefore it is not made into a parable. And according to this, your questioning of your first understanding of the Rambam that the result of the minor and major constitutes a parable on the conclusion is not a question, and it is possible to remain in your first understanding of the Rambam that what is learned from the lecture is also less severe.
G. Here I went back and wrote your two excuses and what seemed difficult to me about them, etc., but I deleted them for some reason. Could you please at least just confirm that even now that I have explained my question further, your two excuses or one of them still stand.
So according to the Rambam, the ku on the issue of ‘Torah and food’ remains difficult (even if we assume that the lacunae are filled with an ’explicit exemption’ but on the level of ’Ghomra/Kola’ they are more severe, the ratio is still maintained and the ku cannot be performed)?
Likewise, this undermines the ‘truth of the measure’ to know about the levels of ’Ghomra as a basis for performing the ku, due to a lack of information, which may never be the case that the explicit ‘exemption’ on the level of ‘Ghomra/Kola is indeed more severe and for some side reason the Torah did not interpret its obligation. Let's say on the issue of ‘Keren in the courtyard of the damage’ Is it possible that the tooth is more severe and the tooth fell?
Ostensibly, we require an indication of this, and not simply assume that the ‘exemption’ slot is more severe. But then, we are already arbitrarily assuming implicitly some kind of severe/mild relationship to the final result.
However, according to the other interpreters, the criterion for knowing what is more severe is according to the explicit data
Regarding Torah and food, the conclusion is that the two are not made the same. The question was about the hu.
I alluded to your second question in my words. And I explained that usually the validity does imply severity unless there is an indication that it is not.
But seemingly from every Q&A we see that the attacker does not combine with a serious matter? After all, the explicit data are less serious than the Q&A result. So there is a detraction from the principle you wrote (- “that usually the attacker does imply a serious matter”)
That's right. Where there is a line, it really doesn't exist.
Perhaps it is possible to bring the principle of the column (that there is validity and there is a graver) from B.C. 2, page 2, and Matthew 2:1-3, where it says, "But the connected mother." There is an argument there for charging a connected heir with full damages in K.V., because it is more severe than the data there (some opinions), and despite this, the conclusion in the G.M. is that since there is an explicit text, "The firstborn is the one who is worthy of honor," then in practice, he does not charge full damages, but half.
Ostensibly, the graver relationship of a connected heir is preserved, only because, because of the explicit text, it is not a law. And yet, it is found that the explicit law does not converge with the graver/kola relationship.
It is possible. But perhaps the verse reveals that the severity ratio is incorrect.
Corrections.
First line: Bring reinforcement
Second line from the end: Preserved,
A. What is the difference between a fourth and a third in the holy law? For example, a fourth in the holy law is invalid, both minor and major. For the sake of simplicity, are the second and third equal and more serious than the fourth? Or if one is forced to eat one of them, then the second and third are equal and one must prefer the fourth that comes from the study?
B. In the Gemara, we see that Milta Datia, who learned the word "tarahe" in the light and major, wrote "tarahe" in order to teach us the truth that here the validity is high.
C. I thought of a strange conclusion. According to you, guilt is due to harming the essence, and "tarahe" in the light and major teaches about the essence. So if we find a prohibition that was learned in the light and major from the prohibition of cutting, whose omission was a sin and whose guilt was not made known, then there is no "nao" and "tarahe" and "tarahe", but guilt will still be there. Indeed.
A. Simply put, the minor is determined by the severity and not by the validity.
B. I don't know what the meaning of validity is. The main thing is the severity. And if it is a book that interprets an existing law (adds a detail to it) and does not renew a new law, then the validity is also high.
Beyond that, if one writes to teach about the validity of the book itself, it is unnecessary. Therefore, perhaps the duplication itself is a matter of duty.
C. Why is this strange? It certainly turns out. Furthermore, if one simply learns a prohibition in a book from some other law, then the one who learned it is not a Torah prohibition according to the Maimonides, but one may be guilty of it.
B. If there are no validators from the law, then two verses should be written, and what is the point of the len and hemat itself being unnecessary. And if the validator is ineffective, then why didn't your words follow the Rambam's method, as those who say that the words of the scribes were the source alone?
You added a big claim here that the interpretation of the len is highly valid. If I understand correctly, this means that the column deals only with the len again. And wherever the Gemara says that a word was written in the len, he wrote it down and read it, and here it is written, for the two of them, it is only the interpretation of the len. And I assume that you agree that the interpretation of the len is also called the len in the Rambam's words of the scribes. Did I understand correctly?
I withdraw from the hesitation. Of course, validity has a halakhic meaning. We do not punish if it is not valid from the Torah. In my opinion, the rule does not apply if the act is not fully valid.
And yet, the word datiya in the ko”h tarah and wrote la kara, I think it can be understood that it is of second priority. If there is an option to explain that the verse is a new law, this seems preferable.
I did not check the places where this rule is stated. Yes, it is only in the ko”h interpretative that of course solves the problem.
In my opinion, the ko”h interpretative is not the words of the Rambam, just as all the sermons that are valid are not. What is confusing is that in the ko”h eshosot, he writes that money is from the words of the Rambam. The study on money, as well as Be’ah and Sher, interpret the concept of kicha in the Torah (because he takes a wife), that is, the consecration, and therefore, in terms of validity, they are all from the Torah. Although here Maimonides uses the phrase "words of scribes," which seemingly contradicts my words, I believe that this is only in the sense of the source, not the validator. The evidence is that in one later ruling he requires the death of the one who comes after it.
I don't know how to clearly define what a recitation is in Shas in order to check the appearances of Milta Datia in the KJV, if you have one or two real examples of a recitation from three data (which the column deals with) that would definitely help.
Do you think that even for the matter of Lamd Man Hamed there would be a difference whether the first Milta Datia is a recitation or a recitation, that is, why wouldn't Lamd Man Hamed in the KJV be a recitation?
The first possibility that Milta Datia is slightly different from if he bothered to write it down and it still has second priority seems impossible to me, what will God do and is He forced to write two verses so that we know the truth.
The ruling in the case of Keren in the court of damages is an interpretation since it adds a detail to the tort laws of Keren and the court of damages.
Indeed, your comment here seems correct to me: Usually, especially with three data, it will be an interpretation and not a restatement since if we assume relevance between the columns and rows, this means that the ruling only adds a detail to an existing law. We need to think about this further. It seems to me that most (and perhaps all) of the examples of punishment from the law deal with a ruling from one data (such as his sister being the daughter of his father and mother, or mining and opening a pit). Interesting, I didn't think about that.
Regarding Lamd from Lamd, I don't know. Maybe.
Regarding the word datiya in the ruling, I actually believe that it is indeed second priority. The possibility that God will be forced and will have no way out and will have to write two verses is a rarer possibility than the possibility that He came to innovate something else. It is possible, but rare. Especially if we remember that in terms of severity, the law taught in the Koran is fully severe, only its validity is less.
Regarding the Milta Datia in the Old Testament, I fail to understand how you avoid the conclusion that the Gemara sees that the study in the Old Testament and the study from the verse are the same. If there is any difference in fact (or even a difference in knowledge of the Torah), then God wrote the verse so that we would know the difference, just as He wrote a verse when He wanted us to know that there is a warning and a punishment, so He wrote a verse so that we would know the validity, which according to you certainly has a halachic meaning. Now I think that in the Old Testament, permission, purification, and exemption have no meaning for validity, because validity belongs only to prohibitions and commandments, and therefore in such a Old Testament, the Old Testament and the reading truly bring the same result. In other words, if there really are no appearances of Milta Datia in the Old Testament that teach a prohibition or an obligation, then the problem is solved.
I answered. Either it is an interpretive verse and then there is no nefah. Or there is still a preference for the possibility that there was no constraint on the Blessed One. It is true that there may be a situation in which a verse is needed, but if I have two options: 1. Even though there is a verse and I would know the severity even without a verse, a verse was needed to define the validity as a da'urayta. 2. The verse is needed to teach something else, and I also found something that the verse can teach. Now I have to decide which of the two options is preferable. I can certainly understand why the second is preferable a priori even though the first is also possible. The first describes a situation in which the Blessed One is 'in distress', and a verse needs to be added beyond the verse.
And indeed, I also added a third option, which is that the verse in question is a dispensation.
In short, we can discuss this around a concrete example that is neither exempt nor interpretive, but rather creative, and then ask about the priority ratio between the two options I described above.
I only asked about the second option you wrote that there is a preference for the possibility that there was no compulsion. And I ask that a warning is just like a warning and a punishment, just as God always bothers to write a verse for them, so also for the warning, because it has halachic significance. If you answered this comparison, then unfortunately I was not able to understand and I will try again in the evening.
I answered this in the last post.