The cosmological view
Shalom Rabbi, in your book “God Plays Dice” you discussed Aquinas’ cosmological view and presented Dawkins’ criticism of Aquinas’s allegedly unnecessary use of the concept of God. Dawkins claims that the use of God is a kind of “artificial restraint” and that it can be argued that the first cause is the Big Bang, for example (then God does not need to be invented for this purpose).
You argued in response to Dawkins that the use of God is because his definition does not raise the need to ask about his cause (since he is by definition causeless). The problem is that even though I defined God as the first cause, this does not exempt me from the question – why is this so? Therefore, I did not understand how this argument you raised helps against Dawkins’ claim.
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The question is why is God such a thing? Why doesn't He have a reason?
This has already been explained here and in more detail in the first part of the second conversation.
There are two alternatives: 1. Infinite regression. 2. Finite regression, which begins with an object that does not have a cause. Since 1 is nonsense and impossible, we are left with 2. For details, see there.
Why is the bang not such a thing?
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