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Atheism as “Scientism”: On Science and Philosophy (Column 586)

(Following the debate with Aviv Franko)

With God’s help

Disclaimer: This post was translated from Hebrew using AI (ChatGPT 5 Thinking), so there may be inaccuracies or nuances lost. If something seems unclear, please refer to the Hebrew original or contact us for clarification.

Following the debate I held a few weeks ago with Aviv Franko about the rationality of belief in God, I found myself reflecting on the nature of the discussion. To the best of my judgment I showed there that his arguments don’t hold water, and most of them didn’t address my arguments on the relevant plane at all (see below). But what especially provoked my thinking was the character of his arguments. These focused on observation and facts while consistently denying philosophical–a priori arguments. One could say that the debate wasn’t about God’s existence at all but about rationality and rationalism. From experience I’ve gained in such discussions I anticipated this, and therefore devoted my entire opening remarks to a methodological preface (I hardly mentioned the argument itself), since from experience I know where atheists tend to take these discussions.

In the Christian world of theology (some would say apologetics), this phenomenon is called “scientism” (scientism). It’s an approach that sees empirical science as the be-all and end-all, and greatly disparages philosophical and a priori arguments. This debate helped me formulate and sharpen the connection between atheism and scientism/empiricism, and in this column I wish to discuss it. I’ll also address the arguments that came up in the debate, but it’s important to clarify that my aim is not to examine them in and of themselves, but mainly to use them as a medium through which to examine the relationship between atheism and empiricism. Therefore, before I get to the arguments themselves, I’ll first offer a brief introduction to rationalism, empiricism, and science.

Rationalism, Empiricism, and Modern Science

I’ve often dealt with the dispute between rationalism and empiricism (see, for example, columns 363364, and more). Until the dawn of the modern age, Western thought was based mainly on reasoning and less on observation. There was trust in our mind’s ability to understand the world by force of logical considerations. Thinkers and scientists assumed that what seems reasonable to us indeed obtains in reality. In time, this approach was called “rationalism.” It’s important to understand that rationalism is not a synonym for rationality. Rationality is a kind of sensible approach, whereas rationalism is a philosophical view that advocates relying on thought to know the world. Non-rationalist approaches also claim the crown of rationality; in fact, empiricists argue that rationality requires abandoning rationalism. Reason itself, they say, tells us that it’s wrong to rely on reason alone when seeking to know the world.

In the late Middle Ages and early modern period, the empiricist stance gradually replaced rationalism. This is the view that the only way to know the world is through observation. According to empiricists, the intellect operates in ways dictated by its structure, and therefore there is no reason to assume that what seems logical to us accurately describes the world itself. To understand how the world works we must observe it. In this context I like to quote Mark Twain: “The world doesn’t owe you anything; it was here first.” From the sixteenth century onward, the rationalism that had dominated since ancient Greece began to be pushed aside, and empiricism took its place.

This philosophical revolution was the basis for the emergence and development of modern science in the modern era. Thus science separated from philosophy and became a distinct discipline. What characterizes modern science is mainly its severance from a priori speculations and adherence to observation—and it truly achieved most impressive results. Ancient science, which relied mainly on thought and less on observation, was stuck with notions and claims not necessarily connected to facts and to the world (think of Aristotle’s four elements—earth, water, fire, and air—versus Mendeleev’s modern periodic table of chemistry). When scientists began to adhere to observation and were ready to change their concepts in light of the facts, science began to advance. In this way we reached, in our day, the moon, the decoding of the genome, quantum theory, atomic bombs, understanding the human brain, nuclear reactors, and much more. Unsurprisingly, these achievements repeatedly strengthened science’s status, and many today think that science is the only tool for understanding the world. Unsurprisingly, empiricism entrenched its status as the most conspicuously rational expression. Rationalism became a non-rational method.

The Line Isn’t Sharp

I’ll add another important point that I also emphasized in the debate. Modern science is indeed based on empiricism and adherence to observation, but to the same extent it rests on a sizeable set of a priori assumptions that have no observational basis. Chief among them is our very trust in our senses, which is the most basic foundation of empiricism—this too is an a priori assumption. In principle, our senses could mislead us (Descartes’ evil demon), and the assumption that they do not is not grounded in observation (an empirical corroboration that our senses don’t mislead us would of course be circular). In addition, there are causality, induction, Occam’s razor, the denial of action at a distance (physicists’ assumption that two bodies cannot act upon one another from a distance; there must be something that mediates that action and transmits the effect from one to the other), and many other assumptions. The notion that science is based on observation alone is naïve and reflects a misunderstanding of science’s essence and its mode of operation.

David Hume, one of the fathers of British empiricism, presented a very skeptical empiricism, because he understood well that in science we use quite a few assumptions that have no observational basis. As an empiricist, he tended to see them as methodological assumptions that guide us rather than claims about the world (for according to his empiricism, claims about the world can be based only on observation). But many scientists (and humble me among them—see e.g. column 363) see all these as factual claims about the world. The justification I’ve offered more than once (see especially in Shtei Agalot and Emet Ve-Lo Yatsiv) is intuition, which in my view is a non-sensory contemplative faculty (and not pure ratiocination). In any case, a simple fact is that there are many such assumptions at the foundation of empirical science. This greatly blurs the distinction between rationalism and empiricism.

One must understand that this fact by itself ought to shake the certitude of empiricism. If indeed we cannot accept any factual claim about the world that is not the product of observation, then science itself is not admissible as a system of claims about the world, for it, too, relies on principles such as causality, induction, and the like. And if we are prepared to accept scientific claims (laws of nature) as claims about the world, then implicitly we also recognize thought as a legitimate tool for knowing the world. Rationalism ceases to be invalid in principle. The conclusion to be drawn from this complex picture is that while it is indeed very important to rely on facts and to beware of our intuitions—avoiding taking them for granted or as certain (extreme rationalism is a recipe for error)—it is equally clear that observation is not a tool that suffices by itself for knowing the world. Pure empiricism (reliance on observations alone) is an illusion that doesn’t hold water. Their combination is the winning formula.

Science and Falsifiability: Updated Empiricism

If every scientific theory is based also on reasoning and not only on observation, the question arises: what distinguishes it from a purely philosophical claim? In what sense is science indeed a more reliable tool for knowing reality than Aristotelian philosophy (which saw thought and logic as the chief instrument)? Where does science have something beyond philosophical conjectures? Is there any difference left between empiricism and rationalism? This means that if we don’t want to return to ancient Aristotelian conceptions, we must redefine science.

Here we must invoke Popper’s criterion of falsifiability (see columns 403405). Karl Popper argued that a theory is scientific if it can be subjected to a test of refutation, i.e., if one can propose an experiment whose failure would refute the theory and whose success would corroborate it. One must grasp the importance of this criterion. We saw that a scientific theory is based, beyond facts, also on generalizations and a priori rational assumptions, and in that sense it resembles a philosophical thesis. But there is still a difference between them: a scientific theory is willing to subject its claims to an empirical test of refutation. I won’t get into the subtleties and disputes around Popper’s criterion here, as that’s less important for our purposes and I’ve addressed them elsewhere.

What matters for us is that Popper’s criterion preserves empiricism as a distinct position even after Hume’s insights. We saw that there are rationalist components in science, and therefore to be an empiricist in the old sense is an untenable position. One who relies solely on observation won’t be able to rely on anything. But after Popper, there is a more moderate formulation of empiricism that can replace its classic definition: claims need not be based exclusively on empirical observation, but they must be empirically falsifiable.

Extreme views like logical positivism hold that claims that don’t stand up to tests of refutation don’t claim anything at all. According to Carnap, for example, these are pseudo-claims. More sober approaches understand that such claims do say something about the world, but they see no value in dealing with them because we have no (empirical) way to examine them. They are empty of relevant content (which for the positivists is only empirical content). One must understand that claims that don’t subject themselves to tests of refutation in effect make no concrete claim about the world: nothing we could detect in some situation we encounter—or even in a situation we could create artificially in a lab experiment.

Updated empiricism no longer claims that every claim must be based solely on observations without a priori, logical components, but it does require every claim to subject itself to a test of refutation. In other words, it demands that a claim have practical implications. The extremists (logical positivists) will say that without this it’s meaningless. Others will say that without this it’s not reasonable and not admissible. This is the contemporary version of empiricism (though of course many remain stuck with its older versions).

The Status of Belief in God: Rationalism vs. Updated Empiricism

I opened my remarks in the debate by saying that belief in God is, in my view, a factual claim. Moreover, it’s also based on observational facts. I further argued that it’s entirely rational—but definitely not scientific. I see no way to subject belief in God to tests of refutation (see the claims about His providence and involvement in the world—claims far easier to refute, and yet no one is truly willing to give them up or even to try examining them empirically). Note that this is a decidedly non-empiricist approach. I’m asserting a factual claim and am willing to accept it even though it does not meet Popper’s criterion of scientificity. And after all that I also claim it’s rational. This is a decidedly rationalist position, and it seems to me that this was at the heart of our disagreement in the debate—not belief in God itself, which served merely as an example or a special case of rationalism.

What, then, grounds the rationality of claims according to my rationalist approach? If it isn’t necessary to rely on observations alone (without a rationalist component), then what is? I claim that reasoning—or cognitive reasoning (intuition)—is itself a sufficient basis for factual claims about the world. Not only do I reject classic empiricism, which sees observation as the be-all and end-all, I even deny updated empiricism that accepts only factual claims that are falsifiable. In my eyes, belief in God as a factual claim is rational because it can rest on a cogent, a priori philosophical argument.

At the beginning of the debate I explained that my self-assigned goal was modest: not to prove the existence of God, but to show that belief in God is rational—that there is a reasonable and admissible rational way to arrive at it. In short, my goal was to show that rationalism is rational. For my purposes here, the atheist can remain in his position even after my argument (though in my opinion that would be most illogical and implausible), since my purpose here is only to show that my stance is rational (even if someone thinks it’s not true). I’ll add that I also think atheism is implausible and illogical (and perhaps not even rational), but that’s a matter for another debate. That’s why in the debate we didn’t get into the various objections to the physico-theological argument I presented, since my aim wasn’t to show that it’s correct and convincing but only that it’s rational—that a rational and reasonable person can (and in my view should, though that wasn’t the topic) accept it.

Causality

The final stage of the preface is the place of the principle of causality on this map (the question also arose in the Q&A here). The physico-theological argument I presented rests on the principle of causality, and the main dispute revolved around it. But in the subtext, the dispute was really about whether this is an a priori or an a posteriori principle—whether it’s the product of thought or of observation. This only illustrates the more basic dispute: whether it is rational at all to accept principles that are not based on observation, solely by force of reasoning or intuition.

To understand why this is in fact the core of the discussion, we must return to David Hume. Causality is one of his examples of a fundamental scientific principle that has no observational basis. We have no way to ascertain that event A is the cause of event B. For example: when I kick a ball, it flies. Does that mean the kick caused the ball’s flight? Perhaps—but the observation by itself doesn’t say that. What we saw is that there was a kick and immediately after that the ball flew. Moreover, we see that this is always the case, i.e., whenever one kicks a ball it flies. From observation one can derive that there is a correlation between the kick and the ball’s flight and that this happens always (this is the logical component of the causal relation). One can also derive that the flight occurs after the kick (the temporal component of the causal relation, which in my view isn’t necessary, as I also argued in the debate). But one cannot derive that the kick produced the ball’s flight—that there is between these two events a relation of production (this is the physical component of causality). I discussed causality’s three components at length in the series 459466, so I won’t go into it again here.

What matters for us is that one of the most fundamental principles in science—the principle of causality (which states that everything has a cause)—is not the product of observation. Whence, then, do we derive it? From intuition, or from our reason. When we look at the world and discern cause–effect relations between events, the determination of those relations is not the product of observation but the foundation upon which observation stands. Causality is a principle we bring with us to science, not something we learned from science. This is a central philosophical insight for understanding the debate, since much of it revolved around this.

On Atheism and Scientism

From the picture I’ve described thus far, it clearly follows that an empiricist stance is very problematic. If you cling to science and place your trust in it, then you must accept reason as a source of insights about the world—and hence you cannot reject rationalism. Note that I’m not speaking only of classic empiricism (which is simply a misunderstanding), but also of updated (Popperian) empiricism.

Therefore I am a rationalist, despite (and perhaps because) I have great trust in science and its findings. I am not an empiricist, for despite that trust I don’t see science and observation as the be-all and end-all. For me, even claims that cannot stand up to tests of refutation can be true. Common sense and rational thinking are also a solid basis for factual claims—certainly when those claims are supported by observations (even if not only by them, as in science). We have quite a few insights about the world that aren’t based on observation (like the principle of causality, for instance), and we all accept them. Ignoring this is the approach dubbed “scientism,” which in my view is a form of denial.

For a long time I’ve felt that atheists tend toward scientism. They are essentially empiricists—i.e., they see observation as the be-all and end-all. The extremists among them adhere to classic empiricism, rejecting out of hand any claim not based solely on observations. The moderates espouse updated empiricism, realizing that observations alone can yield hardly any interesting claim about reality, yet they are prepared to accept only claims that are falsifiable. I must say that most of those I’ve met don’t even distinguish between these two types of empiricism. I, as noted, oppose both views.

Belief in God is merely an example of a more fundamental dispute between rationalism and empiricism. For me, belief in God fits neither of those two categories: it does not arise from observations alone (but, as we saw, neither does science), and it is not falsifiable—but it is certainly admissible and rational because there are good (rationalist) arguments in its favor. The typical atheist rejects this, for in his view a rationalist claim is invalid in principle. That’s why in my opening I emphasized that there are two toolboxes one can use in discussing belief in God: the scientific–observational (empiricist) and the philosophical–a priori (rationalist). I ruled out using the former (because belief in God is not a scientific claim), but insisted that using the latter is eminently rational.

In light of what I’ve said here, one can put it this way: the dispute over whether belief in God is rational is actually based on tacit agreement that belief in God is rationalist. The more fundamental dispute is whether rationalism is rational or not.

On Scientists and Scientism

Let me add parenthetically that scientists—even the most prominent and intelligent among them—are usually not trained philosophers. Many of them recognize this and do not engage in philosophy, but some think that if they are good scientists they can also make clever philosophical claims. I once recounted here (see columns 40 and 331) an incident I experienced firsthand. Many years ago I took part in a conference at Bar-Ilan University, and in one of the talks an elderly American physicist spoke on some philosophical topic (I no longer remember the talk’s subject or even the conference). At the end, Itamar Pitovsky z”l (who had studied the sciences but was a philosophy researcher at the Hebrew University), who was in the audience, stood up and said to him sarcastically that philosophy, too, is a profession. That’s how I feel about figures like Dawkins, Einstein, Hawking, and others. Scientists, some of them very gifted, can say quite a lot of nonsense about philosophy, and the scientific aura gives them the confidence and status that lead them to very assertive pronouncements in a field they don’t understand.

The problem among “scientists-in-the-pejorative-sense” is that many of them are laymen in the scientific field and even more so in philosophy, which leads them to follow those scientists who do opine on philosophical matters and to adopt their philosophical stances (especially their empiricism). This leads them not only to use scientific findings but also to attach to them very problematic and imprecise philosophical interpretations due to lack of philosophical skill. Incidentally, this is equally true of believers who use statements by believing scientists in the same superficial ways.

In any event, for our purposes I claim that many atheists belong to the category of empiricist scientism. In the name of science and empiricism they deny philosophy and a priori arguments and therefore unjustifiably dismiss good arguments. From here on I will try to show the empiricism peeking out of Aviv’s remarks throughout our debate and the fallacies that follow from it. Note that my aim is not to examine the arguments in themselves, but only to use them to expose the empiricist fallacies hidden behind them. I will not revisit the flaws in empiricism or why it is unreasonable, since I’ve covered that above. So as you read the rest of my remarks, keep all we’ve seen thus far in the background.

I will now walk through the debate in the order of its stages and try to show this through Aviv’s arguments.

The Debate: Aviv’s Opening

I think the principle appears in all its glory already in Aviv’s opening. He claims there that he doesn’t believe in a god or gods because he has never encountered one. This is in itself a conspicuously empiricist statement.

Then comes the dragon example. Aviv claims there is a difference between the claim that there’s a computer under the table and the claim that there’s a dragon under the table, because dragons don’t exist (after all, we’ve never encountered them—remember?!). After my clarification, it seemed at first that there was no real disagreement between us. I agreed with him that someone’s testimony that there is a dragon under the table would not convince me, unlike testimony that there’s a computer there. That’s entirely obvious. But if there are evidences or indications that dragons exist, I won’t deny them just because I’ve never encountered a dragon, and consequently I’ll be willing to accept that there is a dragon under the table. Therefore there’s no real difference between the claim that there’s a dragon and the claim that there’s a computer under the table, as long as they’re based on arguments. This very distinction—and especially the sweeping, mistaken form it took in Aviv’s phrasing—reflects, in my view, empiricism. It seems he didn’t consider the possibility that indications for the existence of dragons might be brought even though we’ve never seen such things. Such evidences, by their nature, wouldn’t be empirical but philosophical (that’s how one treats dragons: they’re invisible), not falsifiable—and so, at least in his initial formulation, he rejects them. From this you can understand that even after we agreed, it seems to me our agreement wasn’t complete. He meant that if there were empirical evidence for the existence of dragons, he would accept it. But I argued that philosophical evidence is admissible as well. Again—empiricism.

Consider, for example, a case in which before us is a table that floats in the air. We have no explanation for this wonder, and someone proposes that there is a transparent object (a dragon) beneath it that holds it up. Is this like the dragon question? Seemingly yes. Aviv would apparently not accept that claim. But assuming there is no other explanation, this recourse is compelled. Here the proposer isn’t only asserting that there’s a dragon under the table—a claim I would also not accept—but is proving it from difficulty in the facts. He has an argument, not just a claim. Aviv would presumably reject this explanation by claiming we’ve never seen transparent objects (which shouldn’t bother us, of course, since transparent objects can’t be seen. But for the sake of the discussion let’s assume here that we also haven’t sensed them in any other way). Is that reasonable to you? Certainly not. Is it a scientific proof? No. Empirical? Also no. Is it falsifiable? Again, no. And still, this seems like very strong evidence (again, assuming there is no other explanation). At the very least, one must concede that this is a thoroughly rational consideration.

Next in his opening comes the courtroom analogy. Aviv casts himself as a juror who must be persuaded that the defendant committed the offense attributed to him (i.e., that God exists). The starting point is that He does not exist, and evidence must be brought to change that. Of course that’s true in my view as well (a claim to the existence of something requires argument or justification), but the question is how the juror can be convinced. It seems to me that underlying the courtroom analogy is the assumption that a court requires empirical evidence. A philosophical argument will not suffice to convict a defendant. Therefore this analogy itself, in my view, reflects latent empiricism. Aviv argues that, for this reason, the same is true regarding God’s existence: this is the only thing that could work.

To this I must say two things: (1) Even in court I’m not sure this is the case (this takes us to the issue of circumstantial evidence; see columns 224226, and more). (2) We are not in a courtroom but in a philosophical discussion. Therefore even if a court requires empirical evidence, in a philosophical discussion this need not be the case. Later on he even says so explicitly, when he argues that to prove something exists one must show that it appears in reality in some fashion. And again, I assume that by “appears” he means the possibility of observing it—not a philosophical argument that indicates its existence. The courtroom analogy continues for him, since in court the starting point is that the defendant is innocent unless proven guilty. So too for us: God doesn’t exist unless it’s proven that He does. And again, I agree with that; the important question is what “prove” means here. Only observation? In my view, certainly not.

His opening continues with an argument that again expresses his empiricism. He suggests imagining two possible worlds (a hint at modal semantics; see column 580): a world with God and a world without, and claims that to assert that God exists we must show that in a world with God something happens that differs from a world without God. He adds that even if we don’t refer to science, this must be something observable that appears in reality. For our purposes it makes little difference, since there is no principled difference between science and observation. But for Aviv, the entire realm of admissible claims belongs to the empiricist category; therefore, even when he speaks of something outside science, this too, for him, is within science. He adds that in his view I won’t bring such evidence, because I said I am speaking of logical arguments. Behold: he expects direct observations—i.e., he assumes empiricism (indeed, this seems like naïve classic empiricism). He ignores what we saw above: even a scientific theory isn’t based on direct observations, but processes empirical findings with tools of thought—i.e., it has a rationalist component.

In my opening I explained that my evidence would not be via direct observations (since God is not seen), but there would be indirect observations with philosophical processing of them—precisely as is done in science (and as in the example of the transparent dragon beneath the table). The empiricism that Aviv expresses here is naïve and classic—i.e., reliance on direct observation. As we saw above, no scientific theory meets that criterion, and certainly one should not expect it of belief in God. If one insists on adopting empiricism (which in my view lacks basis and logic), one ought at least to choose updated empiricism.

Toward the end of his opening is another remark in which he explains why a logical argument doesn’t satisfy him. “Logic is something we invented… reality is the arbiter,” he says. Again we see the characteristic empiricist disparagement of philosophy, viewing whatever is non-empirical as a human invention or subjective construction. This is, of course, mistaken, for as I told him in my reply, logic is the most objective and stable thing we have—far beyond science and observation. If we’re already speaking of possible worlds and human inventions, as he himself put it, I can imagine a world where science is different, but there is no world—even imaginary—where logic is different (I discussed this in columns 549550, and in my article here on Occam’s razor). So I could accept (even if not agree) claims that science is something we invented (i.e., that the laws of science are merely our way of arranging the array of phenomena—there are such views in the philosophy of science), but to claim that logic is an invention is simply a misunderstanding.

Later he mentions that we agreed in the preliminary discussion to rule out Spinoza’s pantheism. But he rejected it because the pantheist claim has no empirical implication, whereas I rejected it because it says nothing (I intend to devote an upcoming column to pantheism). To say that “God is nature” is merely to call nature by another name. It still depicts a picture in which only nature exists and nothing besides it—which, for me, is atheism in disguise. Again, Aviv as is his wont returns to empiricism, even where a simple, a priori conceptual argument could have brought him to the same goal, more easily and with greater precision.

Later we had a dispute over whether the fact that belief in God obligates us in various ways is relevant to the question of whether He exists—or to the strength of the arguments required for His existence. He said yes; I said no. He said that in his view belief is a tool for decision-making (what to do or not to do). But in my opinion that claim is absurd. You can say the issue doesn’t interest you if it has no practical implications, but you can’t say that if it has no practical implications for you then it’s not true (that’s a flawed logical positivism)—or alternatively, that if it has practical implications you won’t accept good arguments for God’s existence. Even the claim that may sound more reasonable—that the strength of the evidence should be proportionate to the obligations the conclusion imposes on me—is, in my view, incorrect. At most one can say that this evidential strength brings me to the conclusion that He exists, but doesn’t suffice to obligate me to obey the commandments given in His name. That I’m prepared to accept (it’s a kind of “palginan” that appears also in halakhah: there is evidence that a husband died sufficient to permit a woman to remarry but not sufficient to allow his heirs to inherit him—to descend to the estate). But if there is good evidence for His existence, then the conclusion is that He likely exists. At most you could say you are not sufficiently convinced to keep His commands. I brought this up because here, too, there is a practical aspect (though not an empiricist one) that Aviv smuggles into the theoretical discussion, and here too I disagree. I’ll only note that in the preliminary discussion it was clarified that our topic was a deistic, not a religious, God; therefore the question of whether He obligates or not—even if I accepted its relevance—should not have entered the discussion at all.

To conclude the analysis of the opening, let me recall that we agreed the topic was not “proofs” for belief (since proofs always depend on basic assumptions, and those will always be disputed in a way that’s hard to resolve in such a debate), but a more modest goal: to show that there is a rational path to belief. In his opening Aviv spoke of the need for empirical proof, but in light of this note, it’s important to grasp that this is a much stronger claim than it sounds. Not only is he an empiricist who rejects a priori philosophical arguments, but in his view such arguments are not rational. Essentially he’s claiming that the entire rationalist philosophical tradition is not rational. Later I explained that by his form of engagement even Hume and Kant—and indeed almost all the great philosophers—were “irrational.” If so, I’m in good company. To sharpen the point: had I wanted to prove belief in God, relying on philosophers—however great—would be an ad hominem (or ad populum) flaw; but if I merely want to show that belief is rational, one could say that if we’ve reached the conclusion that I’m no less rational than Leibniz, Descartes, or Kant—then I rest my case.

The Debate: The Physico-Theological Argument

My argument in a nutshell was the physico-theological argument. In brief form I presented it thus:

Premise A: Regarding all the objects in our experience, if they are complex there ought to be a cause for this (complexity doesn’t arise by itself).

Premise B: Our world is very complex.

Conclusion: Our world has a cause.

In another formulation I put it this way: If our world ought to have a cause, we must discuss the nature of that cause. If it is not of the sorts of things in our experience—then we can stop the explanation here and say that this is God and He has no cause that created Him. If it too requires a cause—we repeat the process for the second cause. In the end there are only two possibilities: (a) There is an infinite chain of causes. (b) The chain stops at some link that is not of the sort in our experience and does not need a cause. Since an infinite chain is not an explanation (an infinite regress is a fallacy), this is a proof by contradiction that there must be a first link that stops the chain. I call that link “God.” QED.

In my book I pointed out that this mode of reasoning parallels scientific reasoning entirely, since it starts from observational facts (the world’s complexity) and infers from them a theoretical conclusion regarding abstract entities—exactly like the transparent dragon under the table. The fact that the table is suspended in the air is an observational basis for the conclusion that there is something transparent under it holding it up. But the conclusion I reach in both cases is not scientific, since it cannot be subjected to a test of refutation. That, however, is not a defect regarding it, since we’re dealing with a domain that by its very nature is not given to our experience. We were not supposed to observe God (or the dragon) directly; therefore not observing Him is not a shortcoming.

One can quibble here with all sorts of objections and responses, and I elaborated on them at length in my book HaMetzi HaRishon (in the third dialogue and a bit in the second). I won’t go into that here, since my concern isn’t to prove God’s existence but to examine our discussion of this topic, especially its empiricist aspect. It is important, however, to mention that in my book I expanded this argument and applied it to the laws of nature themselves. One may claim that the laws explain the world’s complexity (evolution, the Big Bang, and so on). But even if the laws explain the world, an explanation is still needed for the laws themselves (who legislated them). In my view, this is the updated physico-theological argument, and it deals with laws rather than phenomena. I showed there that some of the objections to the argument that deals with phenomena do not stand against the argument that deals with laws. I can’t elaborate further here, but later on I will comment again on this point.

Aviv raised the claim that we can’t say our world is complex if we don’t know other worlds with different degrees of complexity. In his view, complexity is relative. In my book I explain the error in this claim. There is a mathematical-scientific measure of complexity defined objectively with no need for comparisons: it’s called “entropy.” Low entropy expresses high complexity, and vice versa. Thus, for example, living things have very low entropy compared to nonliving things (which are also very complex). Therefore, when one looks at our world one sees that it contains highly complex beings (like animals), and my assumption is that it is implausible that they arose by a random, blind process. There must be a guiding hand involved (in thermodynamic terms: the system is not closed).[1]

So we are dealing with a world that is complex to a degree that is implausible without a guiding hand. The principle of causality points us to the existence of such a guiding hand. Note that this is a cause for the complexity, not for existence as such (this is the difference between the physico-theological argument and the cosmological argument, in Kant’s terminology). From this it also follows that the principle of causality applied to the world and its laws is not dependent on science or observation. This is a purely logical (indeed, statistical) consideration. A complex system does not arise by itself in a blind process without a guiding hand. This does not derive from observation but from reason, and therefore it does not necessarily apply only to objects of our observation. The cosmological principle of causality (as opposed to the physico-theological one) says that every object has an efficient cause that brought it into being (and not merely a cause that engineered it, as in our case). Here there would perhaps be room to claim that this isn’t true regarding objects outside our world—though even that is, in my view, very dubious—but the principle that denies the chance-formation of complexity is pure reason.

The Debate: My Rebuttal

Already at the outset of our exchange appears the main problem in Aviv’s arguments. It seems he didn’t understand the concept of proof by contradiction. He repeated again and again that if I get stuck in an infinite regress, I cannot solve it by positing a different kind of entity. That only means I have a problem, and one doesn’t solve one problem with another. But he is mistaken, and doubly so: (a) I’m not in a problem. (b) The “problem” wasn’t solved by introducing another. I’m not in a problem because the argument I presented is nothing but a standard proof by contradiction, in mathematics and beyond. One shows that one option leads to a contradiction (or is highly implausible), whence it follows that the alternative is correct. In Sherlock Holmes’s words (in The Sign of the Four): after we’ve eliminated the impossible, whatever remains—however improbable—must be the truth. For our purposes: if indeed infinite regress is a fallacy, then we are compelled to conclude that the regress stops. QED.

Aviv’s second mistake was that even the way I “solved” my alleged problem is not problematic. The conclusion that at the head of the causal chain there is an entity that does not require a cause is not problematic in any way. To explain what he takes to be the problem in my proposed resolution (God as the link that stops the regress), Aviv accused me of the logical fallacy of “special pleading.” I have no small experience in logic, and to my sins I do not know of such a fallacy. But even if there is such a fallacy, it certainly didn’t appear in what I said there. My saying that God is a special case—an object of a kind that does not require a cause—is not an assumption I’m adding ad hoc to protect something (that might perhaps be seen as a fallacy—and even that only with great effort), but the necessary result of the proof by contradiction. It is the conclusion of a valid logical argument. So where is the fallacy? I did not assume it; I proved it.

In passing I’ll add another remark, though according to my view it’s unnecessary. He is also mistaken in thinking that on my account this is necessarily a special case. In principle, other such objects may exist. God is such necessarily (otherwise one falls into an infinite regress), and the objects in our world are not such (simply from our acquaintance with them). But there could be many additional objects that either are or are not such. Thus, for example, when we see indirect indications for the existence of dark matter (an example he himself later invoked), we infer that there exists in the world a different kind of matter. Is that also a special-pleading fallacy? When there is evidence for another kind of objects, we must infer that there indeed is such another kind. What on earth is fallacious here?

Note that here too empiricism sneaks in through the back door, since regarding dark matter even Aviv will agree it’s a special kind. So what bothers him in my analogous claim about God? That unlike dark matter, the evidence I adduced is not empirical but philosophical. Beyond that, he also implicitly assumes that all objects are of the kind familiar to us from observation, and therefore he thinks that when I take God out of that framework He is necessarily a special case. Again: empiricism. But, as noted, none of this is important, for even if God were on my view indeed a special case, there would still be no fallacy (if such a fallacy exists at all), as I explained above.

Moreover, Aviv does not accept that an infinite regress is a fallacy. He didn’t really manage to explain why, so I’ll just note that in the second dialogue of my book HaMetzi HaRishon I explained this well (briefly: an explanation of the “infinite-regress” type posits an actual, not merely potential, infinity, and is therefore an evasion of explanation, not an explanation—cf. “turtles all the way down”). What he did explain was that an infinite regress requires infinite time; therefore, if we have such an infinity, there is no problem in regress-type explanations. As noted above, this is simply incorrect. Beyond that, it’s also not true that an infinite regress requires infinite time. It could be an infinite series that converges to a finite time (think that the first link in the causal chain takes one second, the second half a second, the third a quarter, and so on. The entire infinite chain will take two seconds in total). Beyond this, as I pointed out to him in the debate, he assumes there must be some time interval between cause and effect. That itself is not a necessary conclusion, and at least in ancient Greek philosophy it was held not to be possible. If there were such a time interval, there would be a state in which the cause occurred while the effect had not yet occurred—but the cause is sufficient for the effect. I won’t get into this sophistry here (it’s the idea of the continuity of the time axis, similar to the convergent-series argument; in calculus one can see that in principle the wicked Greeks are right, and nonetheless there can be a time gap between cause and effect if we see it as a continuous process while observing its two endpoints). But this suffices to show that his remarks are far from plausible.

These numerous logical mistakes point to a problematic mode of thinking; and again I will argue that the focus lies in empiricism. The characteristic disparagement of logic and philosophical arguments is typical of one who always seeks empirical corroboration. Such a person doesn’t understand (or doesn’t accept) that one can justify claims about the world also by logical argument. And in general, lack of logical skill is itself a typical trait of empiricists.

The Debate: The Discussion

The core of our discussion revolved around the principle of causality. My claim was that causality did not arise from observation (following Hume and Kant; see above), and therefore there’s no reason to apply it only to things in our experience. On the contrary: since it’s an a priori rational principle, it will apply in every context—unless proven otherwise (as with God, where we proved it by contradiction). Aviv repeated again and again that one cannot apply causality to things outside our world.

Further on, Aviv repeats the claim “Who says there’s something out there?!” I’ve already explained the error in this claim above. No one “said so,” and I’m not asserting it, either—I’m proving it. The physico-theological proof shows that there is something outside. He treats this as though I’m merely asserting it and therefore wonders why he should accept it (as with the dragon under the table), and I explain to him that I’m not asserting it but proving it (by contradiction). When I prove the existence of a dragon under the table, or when there are indications of such, the dragon is exactly like a computer. But for Aviv, a philosophical argument is not a proof nor even an indication, and this is presumably why he ignores it.

But even his very argument about the scope of the principle of causality involves misunderstanding. First, because one can certainly apply the principle to what is beyond experience, since causality doesn’t arise from observing the world in our experience but is a product of our reason; therefore, its scope is any context our reason deals with, not only objects in our world. Beyond that, I did not apply the principle to objects outside the world. I am seeking an explanation for objects in our world, and even according to him they are subject to that principle. The cause I propose (God) is outside our familiar world, but the principle of causality is here applied to objects in the world itself. True, in the chain of explanation I continued to apply it also to links outside the world, but only by way of two possibilities: either there is a cause, or there is no need for a cause. Once we reach a link that doesn’t need a cause—that’s God. Therefore this claim reflects a misunderstanding of my argument.

Toward the end of the debate, Aviv claimed that even if causality is not based on observation, it still says nothing until we apply it to our world. He explained that it’s like geometry which, by itself, says nothing (like logic). I explained that he’s again mistaken, and again the problem is his empiricism. Mathematicians distinguish between a theory and a model. The mathematical theory is true in itself, irrespective of any reality and without relying on observations (unless you’re an Platonist who speaks of contemplation in the world of ideas; see columns 383385, 435, and more). But a mathematical theory can have different models—i.e., different contexts in which it can be applied. Geometry is not our invention as Aviv thinks (as we saw above regarding logic). It is true in itself. It’s a Platonic truth that doesn’t derive from observation (and is therefore not falsifiable). Its applications to the world are factual claims and depend on observation. In that sense I claimed that causality is analogous to a mathematical theory, true in itself (it is a priori). But indeed, it can also be applied to our world. To the same extent, however, it can have other models—i.e., other contexts in which that a priori theory applies. On the contrary: since it is a rational truth, it ought to apply in every context whatsoever, not just our world. Causality is indeed applied to the world, but it is not derived from it and is not part of science (contrary to Aviv’s claim). In mathematical terms: causality is a theory, and the world is a model that satisfies it. To say that geometry and causality are part of science, as he claimed, is a typical misunderstanding of empiricists who are unwilling to accept claims that are not facts about the world and who don’t recognize other truths. (This also connects to my columns on philosophy; see the end of this column.)

Moreover, Aviv also claimed we must distinguish between finding a cause that produces something ex nihilo and a cause that produces it ex existentia (in kabbalistic terms, the distinction between creation and formation). I replied that I see no logic in this distinction. In our world, if he were to see an object suddenly appear, he would assume that something produced it—not that it simply appeared. That is, in our world even Aviv does not distinguish between these two kinds of causality. So if we accept that causality holds also in contexts outside the world, again there is no justification to distinguish between these two subtypes. And certainly one cannot say that the assumption that there ought to be a cause for the world’s existence—and particularly for its complexity—is irrational. I remind you that I did not come to prove that God exists but only to show that one can reach that conclusion by a rational route.

In any case, we again see the empiricist clinging to experience. Aviv insists repeatedly on seeing causality as a principle learned from experience, whereas it’s clear that this is not so. The great philosophers like Hume and Kant already pointed this out. It is that same scientistic disparagement of philosophy that sees empirical science as the be-all and end-all. As we saw above, Hume and Kant taught us that the truth is the opposite: even the use of causality in science is not based on observation but on an a priori reason; therefore there’s no reason to confine it precisely to our experience and to science.

When I asked him on what he bases causality—what, in his view, justifies applying it to things in our experience—he repeated that “it works.” What is that if not experience? I couldn’t get him to explain the difference. Note that there is circularity in this justification. One cannot ground causality and induction on themselves. Causality “works” only because we see the causal relation as including a component of production. If we didn’t see it that way, it would also “work”—we would simply speak of correlation rather than causality (this is precisely what Hume argued). It’s akin to trying to prove the principle of induction on the basis of induction (because it worked in the past). Hume already pointed this out and explained that this is circular: you want to prove the principle that what worked in the past will work in the future, and you do so on the basis of that very principle. But, as noted, atheists tend to ignore logical and philosophical arguments.

Further on he claims that the laws of physics as they are suffice to explain the world, and therefore there’s no reason to invoke the existence of something else. Hence he claims that no explanation is required. When I asked what the cause of the laws of physics is (see above that the updated physico-theological argument refers to the laws and not the phenomena), he said it’s a fact and as such needs no justification. I must say I found it very odd to hear this from someone speaking in the name of rationality. As I said in my summary, I am offering an explanation for the complexity and for the laws; he claims no explanation is needed because it’s a fact. To say that his alternative—no explanation—is the more rational one, as opposed to the one offering an explanation, is one of the oddest things I’ve heard. Note that the dispute is not over whether we know the explanation. His claim here is that there is no explanation and none is needed—not that we don’t know it. Is that a rational stance?!

Some of the time he claimed what we’ve just seen—that no explanation is needed, and I addressed that. But at other times he claimed that maybe there is another explanation besides the one I’m proposing (God). Here again is a mistake. I didn’t propose any specific explanation. I simply argued that there is an explanation—i.e., an efficient cause that produced the laws. I refer to that cause as “God.” I didn’t say anything else about it beyond that it is the explanation of the laws. So what does it mean that there is “another explanation”? Does he mean it’s not Shakespeare but his cousin who was also named Shakespeare?! He claims that this cause shouldn’t be called “God” but “Reuven.” Fine—call it Reuven. The question is whether there is a cause, not what the cause is called. The empiricist is unwilling to accept non-observational explanations, and therefore prefers the stance that there is no explanation. This is a clear expression of the irrationality of empiricism.

Toward the end, Aviv conflated non-necessity of a claim with its truth. I explained to him that indeed, in my view nothing is necessary; but that doesn’t mean that no claim is true. This connects to another mistake of those with an analytic bent (in my books Shtei Agalot and Emet Ve-Lo Yatsiv I explained the relation between this and positivism/empiricism). Empiricists who place full trust in observation tend to identify truth with necessity and necessity with empiricity. But that’s a categorical error. As I explained to him, he is mixing up modal logic with fuzzy logic. In modal logic we speak of different possible worlds; in fuzzy logic we speak of degrees of certainty of claims. It is true that for a non-necessary claim there is a possible world in which it does not obtain, but that doesn’t mean it is not true (in our world). It is true—but not necessary.

I’ll end with Paley’s watch. The Reverend Paley argued that if we were walking down the road and saw a watch on the ground, we would surely assume there was a watchmaker who made it. So the world—which is far more complex than a watch—surely attests to someone who created it. Aviv here presented the common atheistic critique according to which one can say this only because a watch is an artificial object. Regarding a plant on the roadside, Aviv told me, you wouldn’t ask the same question. From this he concluded that the world—which is of course a natural object—is irrelevant to the question of who made it (here he assumed that there is no cause, not that there is a different explanation. As noted, this shifted for him, apparently unwittingly). But of course this is a mistake, whose root is again his empiricism. I explained to him that I certainly ask the same question about a plant and a rock on the roadside, since their complexity too is so great (their entropy so small) that it’s implausible they arose just like that. In the updated formulation of the physico-theological argument, the laws that produced them themselves demand an explanation. What’s the difference, then? Regarding natural objects, I have an explanation: God. He created the world, its laws, and all that is in it (the world’s complexity points to this; that is the physico-theological argument). By contrast, when I see an artificial object, it’s clear to me it wasn’t created directly by God; therefore I wonder about it and infer that there was a watchmaker who made it. That is: there is no real difference between a watch and a tree or a rock. In both cases we have complexity that demands explanation. In the natural case the explanation is God, and therefore the question doesn’t arise; in the artificial case a question arises and a specific explanation is required for that case. But atheists don’t seek explanations for reality, since those would necessarily be found outside it. To see this as a rational stance is, to me, most puzzling.

The Debate: Concluding Remarks

In his summation, Aviv repeated that I am positing the existence of something outside (material) reality, and that is the main point he disagrees with. For some reason he chose to ignore what I explained more than once in our discussion: that this isn’t an assumption but the result of a logical argument (a proof). I showed that there is a “dragon” by force of the physico-theological argument; I didn’t just assume or assert it. Therefore his discussion of the null hypothesis—i.e., the starting point we remain at if no persuasive arguments are brought—is irrelevant.

In my own summary I argued that the physico-theological argument I presented is an eminently rational mode of thought. It assumes the principle of causality, as every reasonable person (and almost every great philosopher) does. And it is certainly more rational than a picture in which there is no explanation (not merely that we don’t know it) for our complex world. Aviv also argued that perhaps there is an explanation other than mine—but here he misunderstands my argument, for I didn’t assume anything besides the existence of some explanation. I didn’t speak of a specific explanation.

Given that my aim wasn’t to prove that God exists but only to show that there is a rational path to belief, I think I fully shouldered the burden of proof. Aviv’s resistance to the conclusion that there is a God is irrelevant to the discussion, since his task was to show that the path I proposed to that conclusion is not rational.

As I’ve shown here, the roots of almost all the flaws in his arguments lie in the empiricist worldview he assumes. Usually it’s naïve, classic empiricism; sometimes it seems more self-aware (updated empiricism). But as I’ve explained, that too is very implausible.

Closing Lines: Atheism, Scientism, and Philosophy

To conclude, I’ll reiterate that my aim in this column was not to discuss whether there is or isn’t a God, but to use the arguments that arose in the discussion to point to a correlation between atheism and empiricism. From my (not inconsiderable) experience, the roots of almost all philosophical disagreements between believers and atheists revolve around empiricism. I think this debate illustrated that well; in that sense it was entirely typical. As I wrote above, we didn’t argue about God but about empiricism and rationality.

At this point it’s important for me to direct you to my series of columns on philosophy (155160), where I showed that empiricists in effect deny the existence of philosophy (or reduce it to science, thereby emptying it of its unique content and methodology). For them there is no such domain of discussion at all. There I also explained where and why they err and showed that philosophy is a field that deals with reality but not with empirical tools (much like the argument for belief in God I presented here). It is based on rationalism—and indeed that is the definition of philosophy (not merely one current within it). Here I tried to show that contemporary atheism is based on empiricism, and that teaches us that denial of God is essentially a denial of philosophy, of thought, and of rationalism (and in my opinion also of rationality—but that’s not the topic). That is the essence of the scientism I described above, which is the principal atheistic flaw—at least of contemporary atheism.

[1] In the aforementioned book I explained why I’m not making here a scientific claim by virtue of the second law of thermodynamics. I’m only using the concept of entropy to clarify the notion of complexity.


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97 תגובות

  1. What about emergentism? Self-organization? The fundamental laws can be very simple: arising univalently from dimensionality, group conditions, or a simple stochastic process.

    1. I assume that your intention is to offer an alternative to the explanation of a directed hand. None of these are explanations, since these ”simple” laws that enable complex organizations are themselves special (their specialness is expressed in the organizations they enable). Now an explanation for them (a legislator) is needed. It is clearly improbable that a “simple” system of laws that enables chemistry and biology and life could have been created on its own. If we were to manipulate systems of laws in some way, this would not have happened, except with a tiny chance.
      I am familiar with the cellular automata experiments and the like that are cited as an argument for this argument, and in my opinion this is not an argument. The reason for this is that the complexity created in them is not long-term and not continuous like in ours (genetics and evolution). Furthermore, these experiments do not take into account countless other systems of laws that would not have created such complexities. Take a rule like: Each particle moves one step to the right. Each particle remains standing still. Each even particle moves one step down, and so on. None of these will create anything. What is surprising about cellular automata is that there are systems of rules that seem simple that nevertheless create complexities. But the question is how many systems are like that out of all the systems of rules? Their rarity replaces their “simplicity”, and therefore our system of rules still requires explanation.
      It should be remembered that it is difficult to raise the anthropic principle with respect to systems of rules. We do not know of many attempts to create systems of rules of which our system is the only one. As far as we know, the laws of nature are uniform throughout the universe. Other universes, who knows.

      1. A. A quick glance at Phys Rev will bring up a flood of articles showing how one can derive fundamental principles and laws, such as space and time, gravitation, etc., from simple stochastic processes – simpler than CA.
        B. No one claims that these works are the end of the story and fully show how the universe and its laws came into being completely spontaneously, but this is a very active research direction today, and one can expect progress in it.
        C. Chemistry and biology do not immediately emerge from these processes. In the middle there is a whole hierarchy of intermediate floors that rise one on top of the other.
        D. A favorite example for creationists is to claim that if a tornado hits a pile of scrap metal, there is no chance that a Boeing 747 will suddenly appear from the mess. I am not impressed by the 747. My main memory of it is back pain from the terrible seats. But think of the tornado! Out of the chaos and the frenzy, a coherent structure emerges, which sometimes remains for hours, moving as one body. Sometimes it multiplies: splitting into several “funnels”. This is not life because there is no evolution, but it is still an amazing spontaneous phenomenon.

        1. A. It just means that these laws are not simple, or they are simple but special as I wrote. Ask yourself how many sets of laws out of all possible systems would give such products.
          B. Therefore, in my opinion, all these works mean nothing to our subject.
          C. So what? In the end, it all lies within the set of laws.
          D. There is a difference between rarity and abnormality. Even when rolling a die, a rare structure can appear, in fact, a rare structure will always appear (because every structure is rare). The question is whether it is abnormal. This is the basis of the second law of thermodynamics, that complex (stable) things do not appear by chance.

      2. First, the great wonder of the confrontation was your ability to maintain sharpness and composure.
        The atheist was not really able to listen to the sentence without interrupting you, it pretty much destroyed the ability to listen.

        However, I have a few questions about things you said.
        1. Regarding the principle of causality. Does it apply to God? Does it apply to man? (Will is causal) Is there an element of freedom in man?
        2. Is human rationality divine or in other words, is God obligated to human rationality?
        Let's explain:
        Regarding the question of whether a triangle can be round.
        If a particle can also be a wave.
        And if one particle can exist in a superposition, doesn't that mean that reality is not subject to rationality, and therefore not God?
        4. A triangle has 180 degrees in Euclidean space. But not in other spaces. Is the space that we encounter with our senses reality? If not, then how can we claim that another space under a triangular God cannot also be round?

        1. 1. Do you mean to ask whether there must be something that created God? I argued that there was not. That breaks the regression. It also does not apply to a person's free choice.
          2. I did not understand the question. Reality is subject to rationality, or at least our image of reality. But what does that have to do with God? What I think about is subject to rationality. But logic is something stronger than rational thinking, and everything is subject to it.
          See my article that has just been published Regarding:
          https://mikyab.net/%d7%9b%d7%aa%d7%91%d7%99%d7%9d/%d7%9e%d7%90%d7%9e%d7%a8%d7%99%d7%9d/%d7%a2%d7%9c-%d7%aa%d7%95%d7%a8%d7%aa-%d7%94%d7%a7%d 7%95%d7%95%d7%a0%d7%98%d7%99%d7%9d-%d7%95%d7%98%d7%a2%d7%a0%d7%95%d7%aa-%d7%90%d7%9e%d7%95%d7%a0%d7%95%d7%aa-%d7%a1%d7%aa%d7%99%d7%a8%d7%aa%d7%99
          4. A triangle in Euclidean space cannot be round. In another space it may be, but that is not what we are talking about. If there is a space in which a triangle is round, then it is not a logical contradiction.

    2. Suppose that in our world, many events suddenly occurred for no apparent reason. Basic laws of nature are broken at all levels and then sometimes they return to normal, sometimes the results of experiments cannot be repeated and sometimes they do, a complete mess. You could throw all of physics in the trash because it doesn't work anymore, and you can't formulate any new laws.
      Would you still hold to the principle of causality?
      I think I would seriously consider abandoning it.
      And in my opinion, if such a world had always existed, the principle of causality wouldn't even be a thing.
      In conclusion, it seems to me that the principle of causality does indeed arise from observations.
      Correct me if I'm wrong.

      1. I agree with the gist of what you said (that if causality were hidden from observation, I might throw it away. Or I would complain that I didn't find the cause). But your conclusion doesn't follow from that. That doesn't mean that causality is based on observation. Observation could perhaps make me abandon it.

        1. The principle of causality contradicts human freedom. Belief in absolute causality negates will, and eliminates the difference between something wise and something foolish. Whoever believes in causality believes that his belief is a necessary product of previous circumstances. And how is it superior to belief in experiments or coincidences?

          1. The principle of causality does not rule out free will. Absolute causality certainly does. I have dealt with all of these issues extensively in my books on the science of freedom.

    3. I watched the entire discussion and it's still not clear to me how you came to the conclusion that the principle of causality indicates that there is a creator for those four laws of physics. Before the Big Bang, there were other laws. That's for sure. There was no time and no light to apply the laws of this reality to it. You claimed that the principle of causality was not derived from observation but from human thought/cognition. So, how do you know that that principle is true? Even in this reality. If there is no observation, the principle is true because it is the only thing we know in this reality. We have never found (in this reality) anything that was created without a cause, and therefore we have concluded that everything has a cause - at least for now. Let's assume that humans have something in their intelligence that makes them assume/conclude/think that the principle of causality is true. Who said they were right? I of course do not deny the principle of causality for the reason I explained (nothing was created without a cause), but I do not understand where the conclusion came from that the principle of causality is a true principle in general and not just in this reality. The principle was not derived from observation, after all, but only as a principle in our reality that has not been refuted and is occurring all the time. Where does the conclusion come from that it existed before the Big Bang and therefore must have a reason for the bang?
      Even if you manage to explain it to me, I have another question, and that is how can we know that the same reason meets all the characteristics of God? How do we know that it is omnipotent, unlimited, omniscient, bodiless and in the image of the body? You probably answered this question in detail in one of your books (which I have not had the chance to read so far), but I would love to hear at least a hint of how you even discovered anything about that reason? I mean, all we know is that there were other laws of physics before the bang, and if you are right, the principle of causality was true then too and therefore there is some reason. We know nothing about it, and there are many who deny its existence. I would love to understand what the next step is, even briefly.
      Anyway, I think there is a problem with you presenting your rational argument on the question ‘Is belief in God rational’. The problem is that if you present your argument for the existence of God, you *automatically* turn the argument into an argument about whether or not God exists, and not about whether there is a rational way to reach Him. This happens because simply – If your argument is correct, the way you reached God is rational and God exists. And if the argument is incorrect, then it is irrational and there is no God. What I am saying is that the correctness of the argument comes along with its being rational or irrational. How can something be rational but wrong? There must be a problem with it. You can also see in the argument that you are arguing much more about whether it is true or not, and not about whether it is rational. I don't think that in the middle of your explanation you can suddenly say that it is irrational, after all it is a combination of logic and philosophy. You and Aviv didn't talk about your background or the chances of each of you being subjective and biased, except whether the argument is true or not. As you said at the end of the discussion, (as a result) you didn't even get to the first objection.
      In any case, I would be happy if you could explain to me, at least briefly, why the principle of causality is also true for the pre-bang universe, and why the same reason for the bang and the four laws of physics meets the characteristics of God. Thank you very much.

      1. I say that it is difficult to address so many mixed questions.
        1. You are confusing. The laws of physics are not related to the phenomena they describe. Even if there was no light, the laws of electromagnetism would still be true. The same goes for mass and gravitation. In any case, it is clear that there were no other laws.
        2. David Hume argued that the principle of causality does not arise from observation. I only agree with that. When you ask how I know that it is true, you assume empiricism (that observation alone is the basis for information about the world). I disagree with that. In my opinion, we have the ability to understand things and observe ideas with the mind (in Husserl's terms), or with our intuition and understand properties of the world not through physical phenomena and their analysis. I have dedicated several books to this (Two Carts, Truth and Unstable).
        3. The question you asked about a priori principles can also be asked about observation. Just because you think you saw something does not mean that that something really exists. It could be an illusion or a hallucination. If you do not accept basic intuitions, empiricism will not save you. And if you do accept – then what do you want from rationalism.
        4. I did not assume anything about God beyond that he is the cause of these laws. Therefore, your question about him being the cause is irrelevant. I did not assume that he is omnipotent, immaterial, omniscient, and so on. To understand how I arrive at a more concrete belief in God, I can refer you to my first published book (especially the fifth conversation).
        5. The identification you make between the question of whether the path to God is rational and the question of whether or not God exists is wrong. Rational means not mystical and not beyond reason. This does not necessarily mean that the conclusion is correct or necessary and agreed upon. It is possible to arrive rationally at opposing conclusions, and then I doubt it. Different people can arrive in rational ways to reach conclusion A or B, and then there is a disagreement between them. This does not necessarily mean that one of them is irrational.
        Personally, I think that atheism is also irrational, but the task I took on in this debate was more minimal: just to show that belief is rational.
        6. Since the principle of causality is a priori, it does not deal with our world specifically. Therefore, there is no reason (?) to assume that it did not exist before the bang. The bang itself is a kind of reason for the world, and it is a fact that scientists are also looking for reasons for the formation of the world.

        1. Thank you very much for your reply. I have a few things to say, if I'm not addressing something here I probably agree with what you wrote.
          1+2. The laws of electromagnetism would exist if there was light, but in the universe before the big bang there was no light. We (scientists, humanity) have no idea what was before the big bang. The situation is so dire that we don't even know if the term 'before the big bang' is a term that exists. That is, if there was anything before. We know that the laws at that time were at least a little different, whether that means that one or two laws simply didn't exist or whether that means they were completely different based on what did exist. In a discussion with Aviv, he asked you whether there could be a reality in which the principle of causality doesn't exist, and you answered that 'in your opinion it's unlikely'. I still don't understand what the assumption that it's always true is based on. In the discussion you mentioned that philosophers (Kant and Hume, I think) believed that we derived the principle of causality from our thought (and you claimed that it was even from consciousness) and here you also write that we have the ability to understand things only with the ’eye of reason’. That's yours. But I think such a claim should come with an explanation, a logical one, that a truly rational person would agree with.
          3. I don't think that everything I see exists. I accept basic intuitions in part, depending on what makes sense to me when I separate as much as possible (and it's possible a lot) between my feelings and objectivity and rationality. I've heard of skeptics, those who don't accept basic intuitions as you said, who deny that they exist. I'm not one of those skeptics and doubting that we exist seems ridiculous to me. However, doubting that the ”principle of causality is valid in every possible reality, no matter what the laws are” seems most logical to me. Simply put, we don't know how the pre-bang reality worked, and so I recognize that any intuition I have about that reality is invalid compared to intuitions in our reality, which I am exposed to a great deal of knowledge and familiarity with. Just because I use intuitions in that reality and assume things without observation, doesn't mean that it is justified to believe any intuition I have (especially not those that talk about a reality we have no knowledge about). To sum it up in one sentence, I accept certain intuitions that the issue is based on at least conforming to the laws of physics, sight, tangibility, and not intuitions that are related to a reality about which we have exactly 0 knowledge. We can discuss a lot more about which intuitions are considered justified, but by and large I think that any intuition about the pre-bang reality is unequivocally invalid.
          4. I understand that, similar to what you wrote in the article, you don't assume anything about the same reason and simply call it ‘God’. It could be called by any other name just as well. I accept, but in my opinion when calling it God one should provide in the same tone an explanation as to why it meets the characteristics that humans have defined for God. If there is no explanation it may be confusing.
          5. Do you know any example of two opposing rational conclusions? If in a rational way there is no influence of emotions, a state of opinions should be extremely rare.

          1. You are repeating yourself and questions that I have already answered.
            1-2. If there was no “before the bang” there is no question what the laws would have been then. Maybe you know that the laws were different, I don't know that at all. For more detailed explanations I referred you to my book.
            3. If you accept what sounds logical to you then you are not an empiricist either. If the principle of causality does not arise from observation and you nevertheless accept it, it means that it is a product of logic. Therefore it is likely to apply in every reality.
            I hope that your intuition that our intuitions about what happened before the bang are not valid is itself valid. Does it deal with what happened after the bang?
            4. I have clarified everything. If this still confuses you I would be happy to offer another explanation. But for that you need to explain to me where you are confused.
            5. Any disagreement in philosophy or ideology (communism versus capitalism, left versus right, presidential regime versus parliamentary democracy, empiricism versus rationalism, faith versus atheism, and so on and so forth) is an example of such a situation. Even if it is rare (and it is really not rare), it still exists.

            1. No one knows if there was a pre-bang. Can you refer me to a specific book of yours that talks about the principle of causality and the rational way to reach God?
              It's not that the principle of causality doesn't come from observation, it does come from a type of observation. The observation is that there is nothing in our reality that the principle of causality is not true for (that has no cause), and therefore I assume that it is true in our reality. That's all I know, I have no reason to deny what I see. On the other hand, in a reality that I haven't seen, I have no reason to assume that it is true there either. The truth is that I don't know if what I described is called observation. I've never had the opportunity to define it as empirical observation or as a product of logic. If I have to do so, in my opinion it is a combination of imperfect observation and logic that explains why the observation is sufficient. I admit that it is not easy to define where the agreement that the principle of causality is true in this reality stems from, but in short, I don't think it stems from pure logic.
              My intuition that our intuitions about what happened before the Big Bang are invalid is more than an intuition, it is an assumption. The paradox that seems to arise here is not really a paradox in my opinion. I will give you an example, suppose you are playing a game where you have to guess what a certain person has behind his back. You have no clues as to what he has behind his back, so you think to yourself that because you have no idea, any intuition will be invalid. As long as you have no idea who the person is, and the thing he has behind his back could be anything, and the other clues in the situation that could influence your intuition do not exist (which is exactly the case with the Big Bang), the assumption that all intuitions are invalid is correct. That is, I do not assume that ‘before the Bang’ That all my intuitions about it are invalid, but rather assume that due to my lack of knowledge in the current situation, any intuition will be invalid and I assume this on my situation as someone who knows nothing about ‘Before the Bang’. When you look at it that way the paradox you proposed doesn't really work and my assumption is fine.
              Regarding 5, I doubt how rational those controversial issues are when discussed. The thing is, I have a hard time imagining a situation where two completely rational people, uninfluenced by who they are, and believing what is more likely based on the findings, would come to opposite conclusions.

              1. The things appear in my book The First Found and God Playing Dice.
                The principle of causality really does not come from observation. You should see what Hume said on the subject. Observation does not give you anything about the causal relationship. You cannot see a causal relationship in sensory observation. You see a ball being kicked and then you see it fly. How do you know that there is a causal relationship between these events? An analysis of the causal relationship can be found in my series here on the site about causality, you should read there.
                In short, you assume causality and do not conclude it. The fact that you have never seen something without a cause is a mistake. You have always assumed that what happened did not happen without a cause, and in any case you concluded that this and that was its cause.
                Well, we are repeating ourselves.

              2. There are many such columns, I read a little but it is difficult to find the point where you are talking about exactly what I asked.
                I do not know what is meant by logical conditioning, but I doubt that it is necessarily opposed to causality. I agree that causality itself is not observable (there is nothing that is seen when someone kicks a ball between the kick and the application of the physical force of buoyancy on the ball), but again, it can be inferred (causality) through experiment and inference. I do not observe causality, I observe that here the scenario happens and in another case, where the cause is not present, the scenario does not happen. From this it can be concluded that it is the cause and the cause of the scenario. I do not see this as wrong. If you think there is something wrong with this, are you saying that you do not accept such a large part of science because no logical cause has been observed other than what I described?
                I hope to read the book of ‘The First Found’ soon. Thanks for the recommendation 🙏🏻

              3. See column 459 and the columns that follow. It is impossible to conclude about causation without assuming a priori the principle of causality.

            2. Your Honor, I apologize if I repeated myself, it is really important for me to understand.
              When you kick a ball and it flies, I know that there is a causal relationship for the simple reason that if you had not kicked the ball, it would not have flown. Put several balls and several kickers to the test, even thousands, and you will see that those who were kicked flew and those who were not, did not move from their place. This is exactly how scientific observation works and this is how (among other things) scientific theories are created. I agree that the cause cannot be learned by watching a single ball being kicked, but if you put it to an experiment, it will be possible to clearly see that the first cause (before the physics of the ball being kicked) is the kick. I deduce this by observation, not assumption. When I said that I have never seen a scenario without a cause, I meant that I have never seen a scenario that would fail the experiment I proposed. A scenario in which if you apply the cause to it once and not another time, the results will be the same. There may be cases where it is not possible to perform the experiment, but in the vast majority of cases it is possible and that is enough. If that is not enough for someone to know, then from their perspective I do not fully believe in causality in our reality, it may be, but I think it is completely irrelevant to everyday life.
              In any case, if the principle of causality is derived solely from our thought/cognition, I do not understand why we are right as creatures whose thought has evolved in a proven evolutionary way. What if we had evolved in a way that would have made us think something else without observation?

              1. You don't understand what a causal relationship is. I referred you to my column on causality. There I explained that this relationship consists of a logical, temporal, and physical aspect. What you are describing is not causality but logical conditioning. Causality cannot be observed in any way.
                I know how scientific theories are created. They are indeed created in this way and assume a causal relationship (and do not find it).
                The question of why to believe in what has evolved is a question that you can ask about anything in the world, including the appearance of the senses. The senses could have evolved in a way that does not reflect reality. Incidentally, in my opinion, the basis for this belief is really not evolution. I explained this in my books God Plays Dice and also in The First Testament.

            3. So what if I assume a priori? That doesn't necessarily mean it's wrong. You recognize that when you kick a ball, the reason is the kick (meets the temporal, logical, and physical requirements). You can examine many more variables, such as location, weather, type of ball, type of kicker, etc. In all of them, we observe that the kick is what makes the ball fly. That is, we don't observe the cause, but rather an experiment that indicates it. I don't see this as wrong.

              1. Who said it was wrong? On the contrary, I say it is true even though it is a priori (against your claim that what is a priori is wrong or at least unacceptable).
                We repeat ourselves. Read there.

            4. I read from the column, you wrote a lot about it and I prefer to focus on one point.
              I did not claim that what is a priori is wrong, I claimed that there is nothing wrong with learning through experience and examining it the reason for a certain scenario (and thus concluding that the principle is correct), and that we should not derive the principle of causality from our thinking even though the term ‘cause’ cannot be observed.

              1. Yes, you claimed. In your previous message. There is no way to infer causality from experience. Period. This is an assumption, not a conclusion. I see no point in repeating the same thing over and over again. I'm done.

            5. One last thing. The discussion is very critical for me. If this is an assumption and not an inference, are you saying that all the scientific theories based on what I described are actually not conclusions but just unfounded assumptions that are questionable to believe?

              1. No. That's what you're saying. What I'm saying is the exact opposite: While every scientific theory has a priori elements, it's not true that these are unfounded assumptions that should be doubted. In principle, a priori claims are no less acceptable than empirical claims.

            6. So, it seems that what I described is enough to learn from it the correctness of the principle of causality in this reality. So from there I derive my belief in the correctness of the principle. Thank you very much for your consideration and good night 🙏🏻🙏🏻

  2. Why does the principle of causality make sense like a geometric truth that you claim is true in every situation? Just as our intuition to give an explanation for everything requires and from which we deduce that there is a reality outside the world, there may be an evolutionary reason for the principle of causality and not because it makes sense.

    1. I explained this in a column. This is statistical logic. You can always deny statistics, but doing so in the name of rationality is ridiculous. The claim that our way of thinking is the result of evolution and therefore should not be believed is a complacent claim that you can make against any claim and any conclusion of anyone. I have already written more than once that I do not deal with skeptical arguments.
      Incidentally, the comparison with geometry does not mean that causality is as logical as geometry and logic, but that the logic in it is a priori. How sure I am of this, not necessarily as in logic and mathematics. I, for example, am less sure of this.

    2. Mandy: To claim that the principle of causality has an evolutionary reason and therefore does not necessarily make sense is to claim one thing and the other. If the principle of causality is true, it does not matter how it was instilled in us, since it is true. If it is not true, it cannot be the product of an evolutionary reason, because if there is no reason for anything but this is only our illusion, there is also no reason for our illusion, evolutionary or otherwise. The mechanism of causality simply does not exist.
      Doron: Mandy did not mean my understanding of the principle of pure causality but rather our intuition of causality, and therefore your answer does not treat his claim as correct.

  3. Mandy, regarding your second comment. We believe that causality is an a priori principle that applies to reality in general, not just to organisms subject to evolution. In any case, it is clear that causality was not “created” during evolution and as a result of it, since mountains and clouds do not evolve, and yet causality applies to them as well.

  4. Hello Rabbi Michael,
    I enjoyed watching the debate. I am interested to hear why the Rabbi decided to focus on the physico-theological argument. Was it important for the Rabbi to have the debate against empiricism, or does the Rabbi believe that there is no evidence that empiricists can accept (history, prophecy, etc.).

    1. I think it is a very common argument and is treated inappropriately. That is why I thought it would be most appropriate to defend it. Precisely because atheists are very familiar with it and enjoy attacking it (usually mistakenly). Beyond that, the other arguments are more subtle and require introductions, and it was difficult to do so in that format.

  5. Hello

    I don't think it's entirely fair to claim that this is just something related to the atheist world.
    Existential thinking - Existentialism - corresponds closely with the scientific approach - since we have no indication except for observational things. Everything that is not observational - necessarily depends on emotional observation. Emotional observation - observation that has no logical reasoning. Surprisingly, there is a complete alliance between existential atheists and existential religious ones - both agree that there is no logical proof or necessity for the existence of God. And everything depends on whether he exists in the human heart or not. In Rabbi Chaim Navon, under the name of Rabbi Soloveitzik, practical arguments are presented - mainly conservative ones for the existence of tradition; Jewish tradition has no refutation. And the mental feeling of faith that Jews have given to tradition for 2000 years. In itself, it is a good enough reason for belief in it. There is no way for Jewish conservatism to prove itself to conservatives from other cultures. To Gentiles From other religious traditions and certainly not for people with an atheistic existential experience. Rabbi Solvietzik, of blessed memory, and Rabbi Navon are both wise men and, in my opinion, are not specifically postmodernists, but rather formulate on a different plane and with different tools an alternative to unnecessary skepticism.

    But they are just an example. Take Haredi thought in general and Chabad in particular - how many times have you heard the statement that faith should not or cannot be discussed with ordinary tools and is something that exists inside? This statement implicitly assumes that atheism had to be justified and the necessary conclusion in a world where there was no revelation at Mount Sinai / a Jewish soul / a special Jewish spark - and in fact it is a grace given by God to the Jewish people / Righteous Among the Nations / Righteous among the Gentiles. And it is not something that can be reached by logical means. In a slightly less harsh formulation, I heard a lesson by Rabbi Sharki's rabbi, Rabbi Manito, who said; According to natural reason, it is clear that Aristotle is right, not Moses our Lord. I have many Gentile friends. Their minds function in a very natural way, perfectly fine. If there had been no revelation, I would agree with them in every word.

    The argument of revelation itself is certainly not necessarily related to feelings or experiential emotions. Rather, it has a very intellectual dimension. But in the experiential world of our time, even religious people adopt the dimension of emotional recognition - emotional - as a criterion for daily conduct. Like atheists, they completely agree that for proven things, only scientific tools can be used - while for emotional values - such as religion and tradition - everything is an emotional matter. The atheist will choose humanism or pleasure and put man at the center, and the believer in God.

    On the surface, this sounds absurd. But in my opinion, there is a direct connection between scientism and relying on existential experiences and throwing logical arguments in many areas and using experience as the decisive factor.

    1. I didn't write that empiricism is just an atheistic thing. Nor is experientialism. I've come out against it in the religious world more than once.

  6. Shalom Rabbi
    I watched the debate even before writing the column and throughout it I did not understand why Aviv refers to Kant as a cheese and today as a bothersome fly. The matter is definitely consistent with what the Rabbi wrote. May God bless you.
    But since I am not familiar with a fundamental atheist thinker (Nietzsche?), I would like to hear whether, in the Rabbi's opinion, such a one exists or whether it is all an addiction to observations and laziness, thinking in the style of "show me" as seen in Aviv.

    1. I was talking about the common atheists of our time. I suppose there are atheists who better substantiate their position, but I am not familiar with this literature. I don't think there are any great innovations there that I am not aware of, but there are more points that can be argued. Nietzsche and his ilk are certainly not an example of this. There are very few well-reasoned and systematic atheists before the twentieth century.

  7. The fact that people stopped believing in God following the Holocaust is evidence (if not proof) that the existence of deity is a refutable claim.

    1. Come on, try to build an organized argument (all you need is a logical argument of a few lines, but organized), I think you can figure it out on your own…

  8. How wonderful that everyone thinks they are right.

    The atheists start their weekly broadcast today by saying that there was an interesting and level discussion,
    but they identified flaws in Miki's argument, they will soon publish a post that will present everything.

  9. Here is a fairly short list of atheist philosophers:
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_atheist_philosophers

    I don't know if they are empiricists or not, but they probably know something about philosophy.

      1. From what you wrote, we can conclude that someone who is an empiricist-atheist disbelieves in philosophy.
        From this we can (but do not have to) conclude that someone who is knowledgeable in philosophy will think that it is rational to believe in God.

        A respectable list of philosophers shows that this is not accurate.
        Although it is not clear whether they think it is rational to believe in God, only that they themselves are atheists.
        We can bet that they think it is irrational either.

          1. 🙂

            Let me ask another question-
            A philosopher who claims that it is rational to believe in God, versus one who does not.

            Who do you think has philosophical superiority?

            1. To the first, of course. After all, that's all I argued in the debate. I didn't understand what the question was here.

            2. You wrote "The Principle of Causality (which states that everything has a cause)" after demonstrating the principle with another principle, that there is a causal relationship between events in the world, and in particular that adjacent events that I interpret as having such a relationship are indeed such, such as kicking and throwing a ball.

              1. In fact, the connection between kicking and throwing the ball relies on the physical mechanism: the application of a force that ”occupies the ball” and moves it to another place, etc., and various forces and laws of nature, which in laymen's eyes do not directly stem from one or another principle of causality.

                So the principle of causality is just the fact that everything has a cause, and your column on causality probably refers to this.

                Also, my response somehow got in the middle of another discussion.

              2. I didn't understand this riddle. I don't even understand if it's a question, a comment, a statement, and what it refers to.
                Other than that, I understood pretty much everything.

              3. There are two different meanings that I attribute to the ”principle of causality”. One, everything has a cause. The other, there is a causal connection between events that seem to me to be such. For example, between the events “kicking the ball” and ”throwing the ball” there is a causal connection.

                The two meanings are two different principles that are not dependent on each other. Even if everything has a cause, this does not mean that the two events before me are related by such a causal connection, and even if all two events that seem to be cause and effect are indeed such – nothing can be concluded from this about the general claim “there is nothing without a cause”.
                Although these two meanings, although supported by observations, are not proven from them and are a priori-intuitive principles, and both fit your argument about the assumptions of science that are not a posteriori, and also deserve the title of “principle of causality”.

                My first comment is that when you explained what the principle of causality is, you mixed up the two meanings, first demonstrating this with the second meaning regarding the connection between two events, and then in parentheses you described the principle as the first meaning – the claim that everything has a cause.

                My second comment is that it is possible that the second meaning is not an intuitive principle but can be proven and derive from observations, since perhaps it is possible to learn from the physical mechanism the causal connection between any two such events, such as for example that the application of the kicking force occupies a physical space that displaces the ball and therefore throws it, or another explanation. That is, from a correct understanding of the event, the conclusion must be that the ball will fly, and this is precisely the causal connection. This claim may rely on various assumptions that can be discussed, but in my opinion they are no longer part of the ”principle of causality”. I estimate that this is mainly the point your list deals with regarding causality.

                And the third and final comment is that the comment mechanism here on the site is not good, not every comment can be responded to and my first comment was intruded into an existing discussion even though I opened it separately. I also marked to save my details on the site for future comments but in practice it was not saved.

              4. You are right and I have argued this in several places (already in two carts). But there is a connection between the two principles, at least in the sense that if the second cannot be derived from observation, then necessarily the first cannot either.
                You commented on the second, but you are not right. There is no observational way to see a causal connection between events. Only correlation.
                I forwarded your technical comment to Oren the editor.

    1. I don't know and haven't gone through them all. But certainly many of these "philosophers" are thinkers who offer meanings for society and life, but formulating a claim and argument in logic is not their strong point, to say the least.
      You can add Aviv himself to the list.

  10. I don't understand something basic throughout… You claim throughout the article that relying solely on our experience [expressed in empiricism] in the world is a fundamental mistake and there is plenty of room for arguments that are purely rational
    And on the other hand, the entire physico-theological argument is built on the claim that our experience shows that everything complex has someone who designed it…and therefore there is a divine designer
    Isn't there a contradiction here?
    You come to the understanding that there is something outside of our experience, that the laws of our experience cannot be applied to it, and all of this is based on our experience [compound and complex]..
    How does that work out?

    1. 1. There is a lot of room for arguments with a rational component (in addition to observations).
      2. It is not experience that shows, but logic.
      3. But this logic works on ordinary objects like those we are familiar with, and probably on the rest as well unless there is a counter-argument. The physico-theological argument shows that there must be at least one exception to this, God.
      (Alternatively, God is not complex and does not need a cause. He just has the ability to create complexity.)

  11. 1. He meant the second law of thermodynamics and not the first
    2. You see the principle of causality as an a priori principle that you did not learn from reality and that applies even outside of it. How does this fit in with quantum theory where I think there is no causality, there are probabilities.
    3. This debate reminds me of the debates about legal reform, everyone goes around in circles.
    4. May God bless you

    1. 1. I didn't understand what this refers to.
      2. First, this principle is not a logical necessity but is a priori. It says that everything has a cause, unless it is proven that it doesn't (like God). Therefore, if we have proven that quantum theory has no causality, then there is none. Note Van Inwagen's argument against libertarianism and in favor of determinism: https://mikyab.net/%D7%A9%D7%95%D7%AA/%D7%94%D7%90%D7%9D-%D7%90%D7%9E%D7%95%D7%A0%D7%94-%D7%91%D7%90%D7%9C-%D7%A8%D7%A6%D7%99%D7%95%D7%A0%D7%9C%D7%99%D7%AA-%D7%91%D7%99%D7%A8%D7%95%D7%A8
      He also assumes causality or randomness, and he does this in the name of determinism.
      3. Indeed. Unfortunately, that's how most arguments are. Second, there is some causality in quantum theory too, but it needs to be defined differently. Even creation from a vacuum is a result of the quantum nature of the universe. In another universe this would not happen.
      4. Thank you.

      1. I would appreciate an explanation or a reference to an article that discusses the infallibility of infinite regression.

  12. If I understand correctly, your argument is:
    1. Empiricism is wrong
    2. Aviv Franco is an empiricist
    MO: Aviv's arguments are wrong.

    But there are non-empiricist arguments against the physico-theological argument. My favorite is “So what?”
    An infinite-concrete cause-and-effect is logically impossible. Therefore, there is something stopping it. You call it “God”. I call it “Zero Point”. Some call it “The Big Bang”. And the name chosen says nothing about the properties of this thing. For example, that it still exists, or that it wants me to wear a kippah, or that all moral thinking stems from it.
    At the extreme, I can prove that Ramsey numbers exist, even though I don't know what they are, and I'll call them "God." So what?

    1. First, I am not talking about a person but about arguments. Not about Aviv but about his arguments.
      Second, empiricism is indeed a problematic position in my opinion. But the flaws in Franco's arguments were not the issue here. I said what I said about them, both in the debate and in the column, regardless of empiricism. Only after I showed the flaws in themselves, did I collect them and claim that their foundation is in empiricism. This is a retrospective diagnosis and not the premise of my argument.
      Third, your counterargument is not about the physico-theological argument at all, but about the transition from a philosophical God to a religious God. The physico-theological argument shows the conclusion that there is something that created the world and its complexity. Without going into the question of who or what that something is. This is deism, which is a philosophical position. When I want to claim that something has some property or that it commands something, that is, to move to theism, then you can ask your questions (which are also very common and do not impress me very much).
      I am sorry to disappoint you regarding your favorite claim. 🙂

  13. A debate that emphasizes to me how much everything begins and ends with an initial feeling.
    This does not mean that everything is subjective.
    But rather about an initial intuition from a conclusion that cannot really be measured in terms of probability.
    I just finished watching it

    I also agree that the initial being from which a world with fixed regularities arose is absurd from a logical point of view to assume that we are not aware of ourselves or that this is a regression
    But the materialist will argue that everything we call fixed regularities and the like is a product of the human construction that humanizes completely arbitrary things and gives them names like laws of nature, logic or mathematics. He himself says this - these are laws that are found in the human mind as a way to describe things as they are in our world. And not things that exist outside of our consciousness.
    The thing is that if you start from a materialistic premise, it suddenly sounds logical and not delusional.
    Why are things like this? That's how it is.
    There is no logic or design here or anything, it's all completely blind nature. And just because we have consciousness, unlike other physical objects, we make a human projection from our heads to them.

    It does sound absurd at the highest levels.

    But..
    Go argue with that in the logical arena.

  14. I watched most of the debate and maybe I'm biased, but I was a little disappointed in the way Aviv responded to you - it seemed like you were trying over and over to explain things to him that weren't hard to understand, and he was firing all the arguments in his arsenal (which were probably intended to deal with American creationists) in all directions instead of addressing what you were saying. It was also clear that you were coming with a solid mishnah, so you remained calm throughout the discussion, and he was stressed and almost hysterical in my opinion. He really didn't let you finish a sentence, it was really frustrating and at some point really irritated me. I'm not a philosopher at all, but I think you tried over and over to define the framework of the discussion (not "proof that there is a God" and not "proof that the Torah is true" but a much more modest claim) and he continued to address other, unrelated things. I felt that he didn't come prepared and didn't know what he was going to deal with. Not in the sense of “who is smarter” (you, of course :-)) but in the sense of what the framework of the discussion is and which arguments are relevant and which are not. I think your approach was very unexpected for him, so he simply used every argument he knew and did not notice that he was being presented with a new type of argument – both methodologically and in terms of the type of argument.

    1. In the preliminary hearing, we refined the issue. Beyond that, he had an advantage because he read my materials before the hearing (according to his testimony), and therefore he could have been familiar with my arguments. That's the situation.

    2. I agree with your sentiments. In my opinion, the discussion was unfair because there is too great an intellectual gap between Aviv and Michael. Nevertheless, it was fascinating and interesting, as was the column. Thank you.

    3. Indeed, it was "no strength"; it must be noted to the rabbi's praise that he patiently dealt with the other guy's series of logical failures - it is likely that because of the spread of atheism and the fundamental simplicity with which it is accepted, it is difficult to find serious people today, as well as atheists who deal with it seriously. Religious people are naturally more committed to examining their fundamental truths. It can be assumed that the problem was once the other way around.

  15. Hello,
    I would love to hear why the rabbi believes that causality does indeed necessarily exist (I agree, of course, that to the extent that we are obligated to its existence, then this obligation is a priori). Russell, for example, denied causality and compared it to the non-existence of God (in his opinion). He argued that causality is a remnant of a way of thinking that was forced to explain things through it, but sought to explain the world through equations alone (I agree that it is possible to discuss whether an equation constitutes an explanation and to discuss what an explanation is in general, but I am trying to limit the discussion).
    In short; I would love to hear which phenomena - in the rabbi's opinion - are not explained in principle (and not by chance) without the use of causality.

    1. If such phenomena existed, then the principle of causality would be empirically scientific.
      It does not necessarily exist. It does exist (not necessarily).

  16. As a believer, I can say that these discussions did not introduce anything new to me.

    Just like the discussions of Rabbi Amnon Yitzhak against angry atheists in his lectures in the early 1990s.

    The cosmological argument is Rabbi Amnon Yitzhak's version – “Who set off the bomb?”

    The argument is of Rabbi Yitzhaki's complexity “Have you ever seen flesh grow a stone?”

    This is exactly what is going on today in discussions between believers and atheists.
    It's all the same

  17. I would appreciate an explanation or a reference to an article that discusses the infallibility of infinite regression.

    1. You can probably find it online. I wrote my opinion in the second conversation in the first issue (an early version is in the second notebook here)

  18. You're basically saying that the reason there is a world is God, but the reason there is a God is ‘like this’.
    So why can't you stop earlier and say that the reason there is a complex world is ‘like this’?

    1. Ask this up here. Because physical complexity of the familiar kind is not a cause of itself. And besides, God is not necessarily complex. He has the ability to create complex things.

      1. Regarding the claim that God is not necessarily complex, I noticed that you don't mention this claim in the trilogy? What are your doubts about it?

  19. A similar debate that reminded me of this one (in English only):
    https://youtu.be/VrIvwPConv0?si=vyGwdsZjq8wikIR0

  20. I heard this debate on a radio. I must say that the time was really a bit too long, but you, Michie, were too polite and failed to complete an idea in its entirety. In my opinion, you should have demanded the right to speak in succession.

  21. ‘The one who offers an explanation is the irrational one and the one who says there is no explanation is the rational one? Sounds strange to me’. Mickey's knockout of the lovable Franco in the last sentence of this wonderful debate. Strong and courageous for both sides.

  22. It's not really a knockout. Even quite puzzling. Atheism doesn't really mean there is no explanation. Not at all. Atheism means that we don't know (right now) what the explanation is, with the understanding that there might not be one. It's much more rational than believing in an explanation that is clearly unfounded.
    Of course, the physico-theological argument is well-founded, but then you just argue about the argument. The sentence itself “Whoever says there is no explanation is rational?” doesn't look at the whole picture.

  23. Miki, where is your response to the video uploaded by Aviv “Review/Criticism of a Discussion with Michael Avraham” https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ye8bRVI6HAw&t=96s

  24. But that's what you wrote above

    mikyabReplied:
    16/08/2023 at 23:03
    I wanted to post a comment column before the flight and didn't have time. I'll post it when I get back

  25. Why, in your argument with Aviv, did you say that the proof is from the complexity of the world, why is it not enough to arrive at this even without complexity but from its very being and presence? And why did you call it “reasonable” that it has a creator, only reasonable, why is it clearly illogical?

    1. This is the physico-theological evidence. You are talking about the cosmological one, which in my opinion is weaker. See the first statement.
      Logical means probable (not certain).

  26. That's exactly what I asked, Your Honor, why is it only "likely", why is it simply "impossible". It is not possible for matter to be created alone or always.

  27. Your Honor, I would be happy if you could answer me: Is it really possible that the world was created alone, just not likely or logical?

    And one more thing, could you briefly say (although you elaborated in the book) why the cosmological proof is weaker than the physico-theological one? After all, both are unlikely to have been created alone, meaning both are complex and simple.

    1. Indeed. Possible but unlikely. I don't understand the question. Nothing is certain.
      Because in a thing without properties there is only the assumption that it did not come into being alone. In a complex thing there is this assumption and in addition there is also an assumption that the complexity is not created by chance.

      1. I am going to present an unpopular response here that may provoke diverse reactions, but I am putting it here in the name of freedom of expression and in the aim of striving to explore the truth – at least the truth that I experience and understand.

        “The ego's job is to convince God that he is not God.”
        This is part of the game that God plays with himself. Any attempt to prove or argue about this is itself part of the game, because logic, arguments and evidence are the tools that the ego uses to obscure the simple truth. That is exactly the trick.

        🔹 God is us!

        🔹 You can experience this directly through 5-MeO-DMT.
        This direct experience can break through the boundaries of the ego and show us the simple truth – that everything is one.

        🔹 But how can you use the tools of the ego to reveal the truth beyond the ego?
        Intellectual tools, such as logic and philosophy, are like a map that directs us to direct experience. They do not replace the experience itself, but rather remove mental barriers that prevent us from reaching it.
        For example, Bernardo Kastrup uses these tools to create a mental framework that leads us to the point of understanding where we can release the ego and experience unity directly.

        This is my take.

        For those who want to explore further, I recommend checking out the materials of:

        1. Martin W. Ball – considered an expert in the field and has written many books on the subject.

        2. Bernardo Kastrup – a philosopher who studies consciousness in a deep and orderly way.

        Just as if I fell out of a plane, I cannot claim that I did not fall out of it – so too direct experience cannot be denied.

        Love you – you are another version of me.

        Links for those who want to expand:

        1. Is Everything Made of Matter or Consciousness? | Rupert Spira & Bernardo Kastrup in Conversation (Part 1)

        2. If Non-Duality Is True, What Does It Mean for Us? | Rupert Spira & Bernardo Kastrup (Part 2)

        (I responded here in response to a response because I couldn't respond any other way, I'm probably not very familiar with the format here so it's for technical reasons)

  28. I noticed that the links cannot be opened, probably for some reason. Perhaps the platform changes the way the link works. I assume that anyone interested in watching, even just out of curiosity, can copy the title directly to YouTube and get the result. I apologize for the inconvenience.

  29. Hello Rabbi Michi,
    As I understand it, the discussion was less fruitful than it could have been due to a conceptual gap.
    You decided not to talk about Spinoza's God, and it turned out that you talked about him for an hour.

    As long as you don't attach more attributes to God than being complex, there is no way to distinguish him from what Aviv calls – nature.
    "Will" is not a sufficiently distinguishing attribute. An electron also has a desire to get closer to a proton. Nature also has desires.

    Until you attach to God the attitude towards humans and their behavior, the discussion is, in my opinion, a deaf discourse.
    I like your argument that there is expected to be a moral God, and therefore you know how to look for him, but you didn't get there.

    In any case, it is always fascinating to hear you speak because of the clarity and accessibility, thank you.

    1. Hello. I really disagree. The opposite is true. My principled policy is to separate the discussions and discuss specifically the God devoid of any color and only then move on. The world indicates that there was something that created it, and to conclude this I do not need to say anything about that something. Just as if I see footprints in the sand I can assume that someone passed there who made them without knowing anything about that creature. You cannot say that the fingerprints themselves are this something. That is ridiculous. In the same way you cannot say that the world is the creator of the world.
      And this is absolutely not Spinoza's God. Spinoza's God is the God you describe, who is identical to the world itself. That is precisely why I am not willing to discuss it because it is an empty concept. I am talking about a God who is clearly not Spinoza, something outside the world that created the world. Whether I say anything about him or not has nothing to do with pantheism.
      And no, the electron does not have a will but a tendency or potential inherent in it.

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