Is there really a “prohibition” on publishing Shazal? And does it include married couples with children?
Shalom Rabbi Shlita
In the issue of Yevamot (33:2), it seems that the sin of being awake and masturbating was not the manner of the act itself, but the intention: “He did not masturbate because it was not for him to have the seed, but he was awake and worked hard so that she would not conceive and deny her beauty.” It seems here that the essence of the prohibition is the intention, not the act itself. (And so it appears from the Tosafot there. In a second opinion) and this is also the opinion of the Rabbi (Ridd’s rulings on Yevamot 12:2): What kind of act of being awake and masturbating is forbidden by the Torah, if the intention is not to conceive in order to deny her beauty. And he does not want to fulfill a vow from it, but if his intention is not to bring about danger, it is permissible. And so, if he intends to satisfy his desires and does not intend that she will not conceive, it is permissible.” I asked, based on these things, whether the prohibition of the Rabbi includes someone who fulfills the commandment of the vow? And is this “prohibition” not exaggerated too much than it deserves because of the Zohar?
I don’t see anything new here in relation to the accepted view. When the reason is unjustified, it is a waste of sperm. When there is a good reason, it is permissible to remove the sperm. It is a fact that a man is permitted to come on his wife both without touching her and at times when she is not ovulating. The same goes for removing sperm for the purpose of in vitro fertilization.
In the Bible it is written: “If he intends to satisfy his desire and does not intend that she will not conceive, it is permissible.” This seems to be in direct contradiction to the prevailing view that someone who ejaculates in vain just to satisfy his lust is a criminal par excellence, isn’t it?
Ejaculating for no reason to satisfy one's sexual desire is forbidden. The Riv is talking about someone who comes to his wife to satisfy his sexual desire in a way that prevents her from conceiving. Ejaculation is not ejaculating for no reason.
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I agree with Oren's difficulty
Does this prohibition apply to a married couple with children who are not currently interested in having more children in marital relations except for the sake of lust and affection, that is, the removal of a sperm by means of contraception or during marital relations according to the words of the Rid? The whole image of a "severe prohibition" according to the Zohar and Kabbalah and other YouTube preachers who use these sources falls apart
I didn't understand. Are you joining the question after I answered? You mean to say that I didn't answer. So don't join, but explain what the problem is that you see.
1. The problem I see is that the prohibition of shal”l does not apply to those who are observing a Pur”r, contrary to popular belief that it is a general prohibition. 2. The prohibition only applies to those who do not intend to observe a Pur”r, for example, a “single” person. And it is not really a terrible and severe prohibition that harms the upper worlds and other vegetables, as all kinds of preachers spread.
You wrote that there is no prohibition on ejaculating for in vitro fertilization.
Why ejaculate only for the purpose of sperm testing, in order to then enter the fertilization process?
And regarding ejaculating for in vitro fertilization, I know that in the Haredi community it is customary to ejaculate while having sex with a special (and expensive) condom that has a tiny hole in it, so that a little of the sperm enters the woman's body. Do you think this is unnecessary?
How would you instruct a man to ejaculate for in vitro fertilization? How should he stimulate himself?
In my personal opinion, everything necessary for procreation and reproduction is permitted. There is no need to deceive God with fictitious condoms.
I didn't go into the technical details, but it is reasonable for him to do this with his wife.
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