Is there really a "prohibition" on publishing Shazal? And does it include married couples with children?

Shalom Rabbi Shlita
In the issue of Yevamot (33:2), it seems that the sin of being awake and masturbating was not the manner of the act itself, but the intention: "He did not masturbate because it was not for him to have the seed, but he was awake and worked hard so that she would not conceive and deny her beauty." It seems here that the essence of the prohibition is the intention, not the act itself. (And so it appears from the Tosafot there. In a second opinion) and this is also the opinion of the Rabbi (Ridd's rulings on Yevamot 12:2): What kind of act of being awake and masturbating is forbidden by the Torah, if the intention is not to conceive in order to deny her beauty. And he does not want to fulfill a vow from it, but if his intention is not to bring about danger, it is permissible. And so, if he intends to satisfy his desires and does not intend that she will not conceive, it is permissible." I asked, based on these things, whether the prohibition of the Rabbi includes someone who fulfills the commandment of the vow? And is this "prohibition" not exaggerated too much than it deserves because of the Zohar?