Voice of an Arab woman
It is written in the Nada, not in
Why is it that a woman’s voice is Arabic and a man’s voice is not Arabic?
This is from a place where you were created, and this is from a place where you were created, etc.
1. Is a woman’s voice objectively more beautiful? Musical beauty is subjective and depends on the context, and a man’s voice also has beauty simply from other aspects. An example from reality is that it seems to me that the number of female singers is not greater than the number of male singers, because beauty is in the eye of the beholder.
2. If Chazal realistically states this, if in theory we prove that they are wrong in reality with the addition of an explanation that it is likely that they forbade hearing a woman’s voice, is there no place for a prohibition on hearing a woman’s voice? Or are we still subject to the prohibition they established?
As a side note, there is also a handwritten version of why a man has a thick voice, etc. Do you think this version is more likely?
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- Apparently, in the world of the Sages, this was the situation in their eyes.
- If the original determination is based on a clear error, it is invalid.
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The fact that a man's voice is louder is a clearer statement. Indeed, as a general rule, women's voices are higher pitched than men's voices. Why do you think that this statement also stems from poor information?
I was talking about the reasoning, not the assertion. They didn't have the relevant information to explain such phenomena.
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