חדש באתר: עוזר בינה מלאכותית המבוסס על כתביו ושיעוריו של הרב מיכאל אברהם

Q&A: Injury Inflicted by Metaphysical Means

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Originally published:
This is an English translation (via GPT-5.4). Read the original Hebrew version.

Injury Inflicted by Metaphysical Means

Question

There is a baraita that relates (Chagigah 3) that a student of Rabbi Eliezer met him, and Rabbi Eliezer asked him what novel insight had been discussed in the study hall. The student answered: “They took a vote and concluded that Ammon and Moab tithe the poor man’s tithe in the Sabbatical year.” Rabbi Eliezer reacted strangely: he said to him simply, “Open your eyes and receive your eyes,” and the student indeed opened his eyes and received them back—that is, in short, he became blind. 
 
I find Rabbi Eliezer’s behavior hard to understand. Isn’t there a problem here of injuring another person, meaning that he violated a prohibition? The Talmud also doesn’t raise this difficulty. In addition (the reference to Yonatan ben Uziel’s Litvak immediately comes to mind), would he be liable for monetary payment for causing injury in such a way? 
 
The Talmud brings a baraita saying that after his mind settled, he prayed for his eyes and they returned to their place. Assuming he should have had to pay for the injury, seemingly he would still need to pay for the pain, no? 
 
Thank you very much. 
 
P.S. There is a clear difference between Yonatan’s case and our case, namely that here the injury was intentional.

Answer

Indeed, that’s a justified reference. I very much doubt that he actually blinded him, just as I doubt whether Rabbi Zeira was really slaughtered at the Purim feast, or whether the students of Hillel and Shammai actually killed one another. There are descriptions meant to leave an impression, not to provide historical testimony.
For the matter itself, one can discuss a damager who causes harm by occult or metaphysical means. As is well known, people have already discussed creating a person by means of a Divine Name, and rescue by occult means (whether it overrides the Sabbath, with proof from David’s flooding of the channels in the passage in Makkot). But none of this is really necessary, and it seems to me that here too the matter will remain dependent on reasoning. If you understand that harm caused in a mystical way is basically an activation of heaven, then it would seem that the damager is exempt as indirect causation (and perhaps even worse than that); but if this is a normal mode of causing harm, then there is logic to obligate him.
Now I thought that perhaps one could learn from the law of the evil eye (someone who stands over his fellow’s field while it is full of standing grain), but Maimonides omitted it, apparently because in his view there is no such damage. And perhaps indeed the whole discussion is about a situation that does not exist (mystical damage).

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