Q&A: Free Choice in Quantum Theory
Free Choice in Quantum Theory
Question
Have a good week,
I read in your book The Science of Freedom on the Sabbath about finding gaps in physics in favor of free choice.
In quantum theory you present that there is ontic freedom (a physical event is created without a cause), but it is random because the particle is distributed according to some distribution.
I would be glad if you could point out a problem in the following attempt to bring free choice into quantum theory:
I move my hand as a result of electric currents, as a result of an electron in the brain that collapsed to a certain point, which created an electric field.
The collapse took place without a cause, but it did happen with my purpose.
The distribution of the wave function is determined by human choices.
That is, the behavior of the particles determines their distribution, and their behavior stems from the human beings’ purpose / future cause.
Answer
The moment there is a purpose, it is no longer a random distribution. For this matter, there is no difference between a cause and a purpose.
Discussion on Answer
Because both a cause and a purpose are not something random. If there is a given quantum distribution, that dictates the distribution of the outcomes. And if a person chooses those outcomes according to his different decisions, that is not supposed to fit the quantum distribution.
I don’t see what is unclear here.
As far as I remember, you also argued that human choices are distributed in some way (the distribution is not fixed; human choices determine the distribution).
So here too that could be the case: human beings are the ones who determine the quantum distribution.
First, the Schrödinger equation determines the quantum distribution, and it does not take any human choices into account. Second, if our choices determine the quantum outcomes, then we are back to what I am saying. You cannot insert free will into the framework of quantum theory. There is choice, and it operates the physical system (quantum or classical, it doesn’t matter).
I think I understand,
basically, even a process that includes the collapse of the wave function is seemingly “causal,” because there is something that caused the collapse (measurement), and so here too there is no freedom (at most randomness).
Thank you.
I didn’t understand,
why in this case is there no difference between a cause and a purpose?
There is a possibility here to bring freedom into quantum theory through purpose (not cause), and therefore it is freedom and not randomness.
As for the argument about the distribution, I wrote about that above.
Where am I going wrong?