Q&A: Morality and Torah
Morality and Torah
Question
Hello Rabbi,
During a lesson I had with a friend, a discussion came up about morality and Torah. He asked me: when I observe, for example, a commandment with an obvious moral connection, like “do not murder” or “do not steal,” am I observing it because it is written in the Torah, or because morality says so? My first thought was to tell him: both. But I’m not sure that’s the right answer, because it could be understood as if I have two gods: the God who gives the Torah and the God of morality.
He added the well-known halakhic ruling of Maimonides that a gentile who keeps the seven Noahide commandments because of rational judgment is no longer considered a resident alien. In his opinion, this is proof that one must keep morality only because it is written in the Torah, and without that there is no point.
What is the Rabbi’s opinion on this? In particular, what does the Rabbi think should be the motivation for “do not murder,” for example: only because it is written in the Torah, or also because it is simply immoral?
Answer
Morality and Jewish law both come from the Holy One, blessed be He. Morality is God’s will without a command, and Jewish law is the commands. But both are observed because of God’s will. So there is no duality here.
Discussion on Answer
Just a note: I have already read and learned that according to your view, some commandments—even though at first glance they seem moral—if I’m not mistaken, you argue that they do not necessarily have a moral purpose. So if so, I’ll phrase my question differently:
A commandment that has a clearly moral context and appears in the Torah—if I intend to fulfill the Torah and I do it only because it is written in the Torah, it follows that at that same time I am not taking the moral context into account, but only the Creator’s intention (whatever that intention may be).
It depends. If there is also a commandment attached to that moral act, then it is clear: commandments require intention. But if there is no halakhic commandment about it and it is only a moral act, then what is required here is moral intention, not halakhic intention—to do it out of respect / commitment to the moral imperative. But it is reasonable that in the moral context there is no need for this to be conscious or stated explicitly (“for the sake of unification”).
When there is also a commandment, then both intentions are required. The meaning is that either one of them would have been enough for me to do this act. Even if there had been no commandment, I would do it because it is a moral imperative; and even if it were not moral, I would do it because it is a halakhic command.
Thank you very much!
Thank you.
And regarding the proper intention / motivation when fulfilling these commandments that are moral in nature—should one specifically intend it for the sake of fulfilling the Torah? For example, if I see an elderly woman whose load has fallen and it is heavy for her, and I help her—should I think in my heart that I am doing this good deed specifically because of the command, or also because of morality?