The Rule of Majority at Moments in Time (Column 509)
The opening challenge from petach patuach: why the years before kiddushin do not resolve the doubt
The column opens with a question from the Ketubot sugya about a husband who says 'I found an open entrance'. If the doubt is whether the prior intercourse took place before the kiddushin or after it, one might think we should follow the majority of time: usually many years passed in which she was not yet under him, and only a relatively short period in which she was betrothed to him. So why does the Gemara not resolve the doubt through majority?
The first attempt: uniform probability belongs to a random event, not to an act done by choice
At first the column offers a statistical distinction. A majority over a timeline makes sense only if we assume the event was 'chosen' at random from all time-points, so each moment has the same probability. But intercourse is not a random fall of a natural event; it is an act that people choose based on their considerations, opportunities, and desires. In that setting there is no reason to give every moment on the timeline equal weight, so the mere fact that one stretch of time is longer is not evidence that the act happened there.
R. Shimon Shkop as an anchor: a majority of human decisions is not an evidentiary majority
To anchor this intuition, the column brings R. Shimon Shkop on the sugya of 'we do not follow majority in monetary law'. In the case of an ox that was sold, the fact that most oxen are bought for plowing does not prove that this particular buyer did not buy it for slaughter, because buying for slaughter is a fully normal possibility and depends on the buyer’s choice. The column concludes that a majority describing human preferences and behavior does not create a strong rational proof against someone who says he belongs to the minority; and that should have explained the doubt about the time of the intercourse as well.
The mikveh case breaks the first explanation
But the column shows that this distinction is not enough. In the sugya of a mikveh that was measured as valid and later found deficient, with the immersion taking place in between, one could seemingly decide by the majority of time when the mikveh became invalid, without needing either the prior-status presumption or the current-status presumption. Here we are dealing with a natural event, not a human decision, yet the Gemara and the poskim still do not use majority of time. So the solution cannot depend only on the distinction between nature and human choice.
The main proposal: moments in time are governed more by 'fixed' than by 'whatever separated'
The alternative conclusion is that the problem is not the type of event but the structure of the doubt. Following majority mainly belongs to a case of 'separated': there is a mixture, some item separated from it, and then we say 'whatever separated, separated from the majority'. But when the thing under discussion was still in its place at the relevant point, the law is 'fixed', and 'whatever is fixed is treated as half-and-half'. The column proposes to see moments of time that way too: the moment when the intercourse occurred, or the moment when the mikveh became invalid, did not 'separate' from the timeline but occurred in its place, at its own time. Therefore this is not a case where majority decides, but rather something like an even doubt. It does note a possible hesitation, because the practical doubt arose only later in court, but it leans toward saying that the relevant moment is still treated as fixed.
The Rashash, money on the Temple Mount, and blood on a garment: when majority of time seems to appear, and why it is not the same case
The column notes that the question itself already appears in the Rashash, who remains unresolved, and even brings examples that seem to point the other way. In the law of coins found on the Temple Mount, the Gemara follows the majority of the days of the year and treats them as ordinary money; but the column adopts the Rashash’s direction that this may not be a majority of moments in time at all, but rather a majority of ordinary coins accumulated over the year, and in addition it is a majority not physically before us, where the law of fixed does not obviously apply. In the example of three women who wore one garment and blood was found on it, the Rashash asks why we do not assign the impurity to the one who wore it for the longest time. The column answers that, if anything, this supports the claim that we normally do not activate a majority of time, and in any case the doubt there is not really about a moment in time but about which woman the blood came from.
Is time an entity? The thought from vows and the reservation about it
Since the new explanation treats moments in time almost like items within a mixture, the column pauses to ask whether time is a 'halakhic object' at all. It mentions the philosophical dispute over whether time exists in reality or only in consciousness, and suggests a thought from the law of analogy in vows: one who vows 'like the day Gedaliah was killed' sounds as though he is attaching his vow to a particular day. On one side, this may hint that a day has some sort of standing; on the other side, one can reject that and say the analogy is to the prohibited object of that day, not to the day itself. So the column does not try to prove a metaphysics of time from here, but only to show that halakhic language can treat moments or days as discussable units.
Sukkah as an example of time entering the definition of the halakhic object
At the end, the column adds a broader note: in halakhah there are cases where time is not just an external frame but part of the definition of the object. The example is the wood of a sukkah, which is prohibited for benefit throughout the festival with a kind of sanctity of the object, and yet after the festival those restrictions disappear without any explicit act removing sanctity. The column suggests understanding this not as sanctity lapsing, but as the halakhic object 'sukkah' being defined as such a structure specifically during the time of the festival; once the time has passed, the sukkah itself ceases to be a sukkah, like an object that vanished, so this is not sanctity of the object lapsing on its own. That does not prove that time is a concrete entity in the world, but it does show that time can be an essential component in halakhic definitions.
A few days ago, a question was asked here about the sugya of “an open opening (petach patuach)” in Ketubbot 9a. It sparked some interesting lines of thought for me about the rule of majority (rov) and about the time axis. I thought the holiday is a good opportunity to use for a bit of learning in the object (cheftza).
The Question
That Gemara discusses situations in which a husband claims that at the first act of intercourse he discovered his wife was not a virgin (“I found an open opening”). This has monetary ramifications (the amount of the ketubah), prohibitive ramifications (perhaps she is forbidden to him because she committed adultery; for a kohen she is forbidden even if it was rape, or if the one who had intercourse with her was someone who disqualifies her), and of course ramifications regarding the status of the child from that act, if there is one. Among other things, the Gemara raises, with respect to such a claim, the doubt whether she committed adultery “under him” (after the betrothal), in which case if it was willful she becomes forbidden to him and to the adulterer, or before that, in which case she does not become forbidden.
The questioner wonders why the Gemara does not resolve this doubt by means of the majority (rov). As is known, halakhah rules that we follow the majority, even in matters of prohibition (in monetary law this is disputed). Suppose she was betrothed to him at age twenty; then twenty years passed in which she was not “under him” and only a shorter period (in those days they practiced twelve months between betrothal and marriage) in which she was under him. If so, the majority of the time she was not under him, and therefore it is more likely that the intercourse occurred at a time prior to the betrothal, and the doubt should be resolved by the majority.
Statistical Logic
At first glance I thought of a statistical logic. Probability deals with random events. When some event occurs from among several possibilities, and the choice among them is random, the assumption is that the chance of each event is equal, and from this one can compute the probability of each outcome. For example, when rolling a fair die there are six equally likely outcomes, and therefore the chance of getting a 5 is 1/6 and the chance of getting an even number is 1/2. But what would you say about a person who places a die and chooses which face to place down? Here we can no longer assume all possibilities are equally likely. He decides the number according to his own considerations. Perhaps he does not care and just draws lots or does it arbitrarily, but if it is his choice, the application of probabilistic considerations is no longer automatic.
From here, if the intercourse were an event that happens naturally and “chooses” at random to occur at some point on the time axis, then there would be logic to follow the majority of time. The chance of each moment being chosen would be equal, and therefore the probability that the event occurred in the longer time segment is higher. But intercourse is not a random event; it is a deliberate action by the people who performed it. They decide, based on their own considerations, whether to do it and when. In such a case, there is no logic to hang the likelihood of the event on the length of the time segment in question. Of course they have various considerations (they prefer night; they prefer certain times of year or week, and so forth).
One could raise an additional argument: presumably they prefer to do this when it is permitted, rather than be transgressors and endanger themselves. But this consideration is also irrelevant for the same reason. If they had the option to perform the act at any time they wished and they themselves chose the moment, it is reasonable that they would choose a moment when she was not forbidden to him (i.e., before betrothal). But who says they knew each other then? Why assume they had the opportunity or desire to do the act before the betrothal? It could be they only met after it, or that desire only arose after the betrothal. Therefore, even here it is not reasonable to apply probabilistic tools that assign equal standing to every moment on the time axis.
A halakhic example of the distinction I just made can be seen in R. Shimon Shkop’s words about the sugya “we do not follow the majority in monetary law,” which I cited in Column 226. The Gemara brings a dispute in a case where someone bought an ox for plowing and the ox died; the seller claimed he sold it for slaughter (leredya), not for plowing, and then its short life expectancy is not a problem. Factually, most oxen sold in the market are for plowing and not for slaughter. The Amoraim dispute whether such a majority suffices to rule in favor of the buyer (we follow the majority in monetary cases) or not. The halakhah is that we do not. Some Rishonim and Acharonim argue that this is not true for every type of majority, but only for a specific type. Thus R. Shimon explains in Sha’arei Yosher, Gate 3, ch. 3 (sec. 47 in the Bar-Ilan Responsa Project edition):
“It can be said that the reason is per the Ramban in Milchamot (Kiddushin ch. 2), cited in Shev Shma’atsa IV ch. 6, who wrote regarding the majority of those who send gifts and then betroth, that it is difficult why we are concerned for the gifts and do not follow the majority. His words: ‘But the reason for this question is that this majority is not like the dispute of R. Meir and the Sages, for there the majority is a necessity of obligation and nature and cannot be otherwise; but here it is only a custom, and many times a person behaves like the minority’s custom, therefore in the place of the prohibition of a married woman they were stringent.’ End quote. It is evident from his words that from the Torah such a majority would be effective even regarding a married woman, only the Sages were stringent. And according to what we wrote, the matter is that such a majority is a Torah majority and not an intellectual majority, and is effective from the Torah, only the Sages were stringent. And therefore also the majority ‘they buy for plowing’ is not an intellectual majority, for if this man needed [it] for slaughter, this does not at all depart from the laws of nature and normalcy; rather it is a Torah majority, and it is not effective in monetary law and capital law for the reasons we wrote—regarding monetary law, certainly we require an intellectual majority, as we wrote, because it is a matter of logic; and regarding capital law, because it is written ‘the congregation shall judge,’ as we wrote.”
His argument is that in the debate about the ox, the discussion is not about the nature of the world but about human decisions (whether he wanted to buy/sell for plowing or slaughter). A person who buys an ox for slaughter is completely normal; it is the way of the world—just that generally there is more demand for plowing oxen than for slaughter. Therefore, if a person claims he belongs to the minority—that is, he wanted to buy an ox for slaughter—you cannot raise the claim of the majority against him. Even if most of the world buys oxen for plowing, does this in any way prove that this person did not want to buy for slaughter? There are people who buy oxen for slaughter, and it depends on their decision. That person is not making a strange or illogical claim. Here, belonging to the minority is entirely reasonable and plausible, and therefore the majority has no evidentiary standing. (The source is the Ramban regarding the sugya of gifts (sevalonot).) Similarly, if I claim my height is 1.95 m, you cannot argue against me that most people are shorter. Does that show I am wrong? I claim I belong to the minority, and since such a minority exists, there is nothing illogical here. The fact that I happened to be in a situation where I belong to a minority group proves nothing about my claim (that it is illogical).
Accordingly, when the dispute is about human decisions, we do not follow the majority. A person has the right to claim he belongs to the minority, and the fact that the majority acts otherwise tells us nothing about him.[1] This is exactly what I argued regarding a majority on the time axis for intercourse. Intercourse is not a natural random event but a human decision, and therefore the tools of random probabilities and uniform distribution of chances across the time axis should not be applied to it.
The Difficulty: Mikveh
However, this explanation will not heal another case in which we also do not follow the majority on the time axis. The Gemara in Kiddushin 79a discusses a mikveh that at one moment was measured and found valid, and after some time—say a week—was found lacking and invalid. Between those two moments, a person who was impure immersed in the mikveh, and the question is whether his immersion was effective or not. The discussion is whether we follow the prior presumption (chazakah de-me’ikara—that the mikveh remains valid until it is proven to have become invalid) or the present presumption (chazakah de-hashta—that now it is invalid and we should not assume it was valid until clarified), as well as the presumption of the one who immersed (he was impure before immersion). The prior presumption leads to the conclusion that his immersion was effective, for we presume that until the moment it was discovered to be lacking, the mikveh was valid. If we follow the present presumption, his immersion was not effective.
But seemingly here too we should consider the length of time that passed until the immersion. Suppose the mikveh was valid on the first day of Sukkot and found lacking on Shemini Atzeret. Someone immersed on the first day of Chol HaMoed. We must now decide at what moment the mikveh fell below forty se’ah. If it happened before the immersion, the immersion was not effective; if after, it was. But these two time segments are not equal. From the first day of the holiday until the first day of Chol HaMoed one day passed, and from the first day of Chol HaMoed until Shemini Atzeret seven days passed. If so, the majority rules that the mikveh became lacking after the immersion, and therefore the immersion was not effective—regardless of whether we follow the prior or the present presumption. Presumptions are meant to decide doubtful cases, but here the majority resolves the doubt.[2]
Note that here we are dealing with a natural, random event, not a human decision. If my explanation above were correct, then here we indeed should follow the majority of time and invalidate the immersion. And yet, as I mentioned, the discussions in the sugya completely ignore the question of time and suspend everything on presumptions (prior and present).
One might have said that indeed, when there is a time gap we follow the majority of time, and the Gemara is discussing the hypothetical case in which the two time segments are of equal length, for it seeks to clarify only the question of presumptions. But when in fact there is a gap between the time segments, we would follow the majority and attribute it to the longer one. But this is forced, and certainly the poskim do not adopt such an approach.
The conclusion is that resolving the difficulty about majority on the time axis in the sugya of petach patuach is not based on the fact that we are dealing with a non-natural event. Even for natural events we do not follow the majority on the time axis, and the question returns: why?
An Alternative Explanation: The Rule of “Kavuaʿ” (Fixed)
Ultimately I thought of another, more substantive explanation. The question of when the intercourse occurred is a question about some moment in time. The intercourse occurred at a specific moment on the time axis, and the question is which moment it was: before the betrothal or after. If so, we have a situation where we must decide whether the moment in which the intercourse happened belongs to the set of moments before the betrothal or to the set after it. Following the majority assumes a situation the halakhah calls “parish” (separated), i.e., that the element about which we are uncertain separated from the mixture, and now we must decide whether it belonged to the minority or to the majority.
For example, a piece of meat is found in the street, and it is clear it came from one of the city’s shops. Among the shops, most are kosher; therefore we assume it likely came from one of the majority shops. The piece “separated” from one of the shops and is now in a neutral state, and when asking from which it separated we follow the rule “whatever separates, separates from the majority (kol de-parish me’ruba parish).” By contrast, if we enter one of the shops and take a piece of meat, and later forget from which shop we took it—there we do not follow the majority, because at the time the doubt arose there was no “separation.” The piece was fixed in its place. This is the rule of kavuaʿ, and the halakhic maxim is: “anything fixed is treated as half-and-half (kol kavuaʿ ke’mechetzah al mechetzah dami).” (For a more detailed explanation, see Sha’arei Yosher at the beginning of Gate 3.)
In principle, the same should apply when a non-kosher piece of meat is cooking in a pot with five kosher pieces. If we were to take one out, we would be forbidden to eat it despite the majority of kosher, since this is a case of kavuaʿ. The piece did not separate; we took it from the pot itself. At the time the doubt arose, the piece was in its place, and in such a situation the rule is to treat it as an even doubt and not follow the majority. True, there is also the rule of nullification by majority in mixtures of kosher and non-kosher, and therefore, strictly speaking, it is permitted. The distinction between kavuaʿ and parish was stated only regarding following the majority (as in the shop case), not regarding nullification by majority in a mixture.
In our case of intercourse, the situation is very similar. The different moments are “laid out” along the time axis. The couple chose a particular moment and performed the act at that moment. The moment did not “separate” from the time axis at the time of the act but remains “in its place” (i.e., “in its time”),[3] and therefore the rule “whatever separates separates from the majority” does not apply; rather, “anything fixed is treated as half-and-half.”[4]
The Rashash’s Formulation
Someone pointed out to me that this difficulty appears in the Rashash (R. Shmuel Strashun) on the Ketubbot sugya there:
On “Ve-i ba’it ema”—And if you will say: If so, in a case of a double doubt she should also be forbidden… It is difficult in light of what we say in Chullin 72b that we rely on the minority of those resembling [males] to the half [that are] females, etc.; and likewise in Yevamot (119) we join the minority of miscarriages to the half of females, etc. And see also earlier (67) in Rashi s.v. ‘All of them male.’ Perhaps one could say that there the ‘half female’ is in birth and the nature of the world, and therefore it is a definite half—unlike the doubt of ‘under him,’ etc. But it is difficult: why do we not follow, for the wife of a kohen, the majority of time that passed over her before she was betrothed? Like [the rule of] coins found on the Temple Mount which are always [treated as] chullin (non-sacred), even at festival time (Shekalim 7:2), for we follow the majority of the year. Similarly, it is difficult in Niddah at the beginning of ‘The Woman’ (ch. 9) regarding three women who wore one garment—that we should follow the one who wore it for a longer time than the others. And likewise in many places. And although one can deflect the proof from Shekalim—that there one could say the reason is that if you aggregate all the chullin coins of the whole year, they will be more than the second-tithe coins of the festival and of the whole year—nevertheless, the logic itself is straight, that we follow the majority of time; and when the majority and the closer [factor] conflict, we follow the majority. See Pesachim 7b.
The Rashash raises this and leaves it as a difficulty. He offers no explanation. Moreover, in his words you will find two examples of situations in which the question of following the majority on the time axis arises. Incidentally, these are two examples of natural events (even though they happen to people, they are not by their conscious choice). Seemingly we must examine whether my explanation above is consistent with his two examples.
The first example is from Mishnah Shekalim 7:2:
Coins found in front of animal merchants are always [treated as] second tithe; on the Temple Mount they are [treated as] chullin; in Jerusalem, at festival time, [they are] second tithe, and on all other days of the year [they are] chullin.
This concerns coins found on the Temple Mount; the rule is that they are always treated as chullin even if found during the pilgrimage festival, when they might have been sacred (second-tithe money that fell from a buyer before purchase). The reason is explained in Pesachim 7a: there is a majority, across the time axis, of non-festival days, and we follow the majority. The loss occurred to a person, but it is not his conscious act; it is a natural event. Here, according to my first explanation above, we should indeed follow the majority.
But according to my suggestion that we do not follow the majority on the time axis because of the rule of kavuaʿ, why here do we follow the majority? Seemingly, we should have kavuaʿ here. The Rashash himself resolves the difficulty by saying that the chullin coins accumulated over the entire year are more numerous than the second-tithe coins; that is, it is a majority of chullin coins circulating on the Temple Mount, not a majority of moments. If so, this does not touch the question of the fixedness of moments of time. Moreover, the assumption that most of the coins are chullin is a majority of the “not-present-before-us” type (rov d’leita kaman)—for there is no set of lost coins to which these particular coins belong—and regarding such a majority the rule of kavuaʿ simply does not apply. By contrast, the majority of time moments we discussed in the petach patuach sugya is a “present” majority (rov d’aita kaman), and therefore one can apply the rule of kavuaʿ to it.
The second example is from Mishnah Niddah 59b:
Three women who wore one garment or sat on one bench, and blood was found on it—all are impure.
Blood was found on the garment, and the question is which of the three women who wore it is the one who is impure. The Rashash asks: why not follow the woman who wore the garment for the longest time and decide she is the impure one? He follows his view that logic dictates following the majority on the time axis. But according to my view this is actually evidence for what I say—that on the time axis we do not follow the majority because of the rule of kavuaʿ.
However, at first glance the discussion there does not relate to our topic at all, for there is no situation in which blood “chooses” a moment in time to come out. The question is not about a moment on the time axis among other moments, but about one woman among three women. If the question were about a drop of blood that fell from the heavens and the discussion were whether it fell on the garment at the time when woman A, B, or C was wearing it, then perhaps there would be room to compare this to the rule of kavuaʿ for moments in time. But here the question is from which woman the blood came. Therefore, here one might not follow the majority even if there were a rule of majority over the time axis, since these women did not separate from anywhere.
Is Time a Cheftza (Object)?
Perhaps one could tie my proposed logic to the question whether time is a “cheftza” (an entity) or not. Viewing the set of moments along the time axis as a kind of mixture, and asking to which part of it the relevant moment belongs, expresses a conception that moments of time are a kind of objects, and the discussion is to which category to assign each one.
As is known, philosophers disagree whether time exists in reality or not. Kant, for example, argues that it is only our form of perceiving reality—that time exists only within us (a mode of thought and data organization). Others see time as something that exists in reality itself. One can also wonder, even assuming time exists in reality, whether a moment of time “exists,” or whether it is an abstraction. Time intervals can exist, but not a point on the time axis (likewise in space).
I once thought one could adduce proof from the Talmud that, at least in the halakhic conception, time is an existent entity. I preface by noting that there are two ways to take a vow: nedirah (creating a new prohibition) and hatfasah (linking to an existing prohibition). The rule is that one can “link” only to something that is prohibited by a vow or sanctity (i.e., cheftza-based prohibitions), not to something prohibited for other reasons; for most interpreters, hatfasah transfers the existing prohibition from one object to another, since the difference from a regular vow is that here there must exist in reality a prohibition on the first object, whereas a regular vow creates a prohibition ex nihilo. That is, hatfasah is done in an object-prohibition that rests upon an actual object.
And behold, the Gemara in Shevuot 20a and Nedarim 12a brings the following law:
“What is the ‘issar’ mentioned in the Torah? [One who says:] ‘Behold, I undertake not to eat meat and not to drink wine—like the day on which his father died, like the day on which his teacher died, like the day on which Gedaliah son of Ahikam was killed, like the day on which I saw Jerusalem in its destruction…’”
Here there is hatfasah of an oath or vow onto the day on which Gedaliah son of Ahikam died. Seemingly this proves that the “day” is an existent entity and not merely our fictive designation, for we link to it; and, as noted, according to most views one can link only to objects and cheftza-type prohibitions that have come to rest upon them.
If so, this fits nicely with our conclusion that one can speak of majority and of kavuaʿ with respect to moments of time, since time is an existent entity. But this can be refuted by saying that the linkage is to the food that was prohibited on the Fast of Gedaliah, not to the “day,” and there is no proof that a day is an existent entity. Conversely, one can argue that even if time is not an existent entity but only our subjective designation, we can still speak about majority and kavuaʿ regarding moments in time, since, in our subjective picture, they do have standing, and in that subjective image the different moments are defined as lying in their “places.”
A Note Relevant to the Season: Time as Part of the Cheftza-Definition of Sukkah
Beyond the question whether time exists, there are halakhic situations in which time takes part in defining halakhic entities, and one example is in the laws of Sukkah.[5]
In Nedarim 28b–29a there is a dispute between Abaye and Bar Pada whether sanctity of the body (kedushat ha-guf) can lapse by itself (bikhdei—i.e., by mere speech, without an act) or not. Abaye holds that it can: he thinks one can consecrate an object with sanctity of the body for a set time, and when that time ends the sanctity lapses on its own; or one can stipulate a condition that will cause the sanctity to lapse on its own if unmet. Bar Pada holds there is no way for sanctity of the body to lapse without an act. The halakhah follows Bar Pada.
Yet we find in Beitzah 30b that the wood of the sukkah is prohibited in benefit because it is sanctified with sanctity of the body, like the festival sacrifice:
“But did not Rav Sheshet say in the name of R. Akiva: From where do we know that the wood of a sukkah is forbidden all seven days? For it is said (Leviticus 23): ‘The festival of Sukkot, seven days, to the Lord.’ And it was taught: R. Yehudah ben Beteira says: From where do we know that just as the name of Heaven rests upon the festival offering, so does the name of Heaven rest upon the sukkah? Scripture says: ‘The festival of Sukkot, seven days, to the Lord.’ Just as the festival is ‘to the Lord,’ so the sukkah is ‘to the Lord.’”
The Gemara discusses whether a stipulation about the sanctity of the sukkah’s wood is effective, and concludes it is not. The Rashba there raises a difficulty:
“Moreover, it appears that according to Abaye even with sanctity of the body a stipulation is effective and it lapses on its own, as we learn in Nedarim ch. ‘Four Types of Vows’ (28b)… If so, even if he holds that the sukkah is like sanctity of the body for all seven days, as Scripture compared it to the festival, how could Abaye say here that a stipulation is not effective? Would this be superior to an ox that is an olah for thirty days and afterwards a shelamim?”
He asks: according to Abaye in Nedarim, why can one not make a stipulation on the sukkah wood? Even if it has sanctity of the body, Abaye would allow a stipulation, for he holds sanctity of the body can lapse on its own.
The common understanding is that the “sanctity of the sukkah wood” is only a borrowed expression and not truly a cheftza-status like regular sanctities (see also a slightly different formulation in Kovetz Shiurim to Beitzah §69). But the Rashba assumes it is real sanctity, like a festival offering. He therefore offers a resolution that he himself calls forced:
“Under compulsion, one could say that Scripture compared it to the festival offering precisely: just as once sanctity comes upon the offering it cannot lapse, so too with the sukkah wood.”
But it seems we can resolve the matter differently. Consider what happens if a sacrifice were to evaporate at some point: does the fact that its sanctity has ‘lapsed’ contradict the rule that sanctity of the body does not lapse on its own? Certainly not. The reason is that here the sanctity is perpetual; only the object is temporary. Lapse of sanctity of the body is a situation in which the object remains while the sanctity flies off on its own. But here we describe a situation in which the object itself dissipates and disappears, not that the sanctity flew off. In such a case, the sanctity is perpetual, and indeed it did not lapse on its own; rather, the object upon which it rested vanished. In the cited chapter I brought more examples of this mechanism.
Now I continue and ask: why does the Rashba not himself struggle with the question of how, at the end of the festival, the sukkah wood becomes completely non-sacred and its prohibition of benefit lapses on its own? Why does this not appear to him to contradict the principle that sanctity of the body does not lapse on its own?[6] According to the Rashba, who assumes the sukkah wood has actual sanctity of the body, then according to Abaye its sanctity cannot be temporary and dissipate on its own at the end of the festival.
It seems that, in his view, after the eight days of the festival, this wooden structure is not a sukkah but just a pergola. Here too what has lapsed is not the sanctity but the structure itself. A “sukkah,” in its halakhic sense, is not a wooden structure with certain features, but such a structure during the eight days of the festival. Time is a necessary and essential component of the object’s definition. Therefore, once the time has passed, the object itself has passed and ceased to exist, similar to a sacrifice that evaporated. The sanctity of the sukkah wood is perpetual, but circumstances do not allow it to express itself in practice because the sukkah disappears at the end of the festival.
This may also resolve the well-known question of the author of Onoig Yom Tov (cited and discussed in Kovetz Shiurim to Beitzah 30b §70), who wonders why someone who remains sitting in the sukkah while it is raining is merely called a fool (hedyot). Seemingly he is actually transgressing the prohibition of using the sukkah wood (infringing upon its sanctity), since he is using it not for the sake of the mitzvah. The Kovetz Shiurim there answers:
“What is asked: since the sukkah is prohibited in benefit except for the mitzvah, then when rains fall it should be forbidden to sit in the sukkah, since there is no mitzvah. Perhaps, when the sukkah is not fit for its mitzvah, it has no sanctity—just as after the festival: its sanctity is at all times because it is designated for its mitzvah; yet if the sukkah is fit for the mitzvah, but the person does not fulfill the mitzvah (e.g., he intends not to discharge his obligation), in such a case perhaps benefit is forbidden.”
That is: when the sukkah is not serving for the mitzvah, it is not sanctified. Again one can ask: how does its sanctity lapse on its own? It seems better to say that when it is not serving for the mitzvah, this is not a “sukkah” (the sukkah dissipates, not the sanctity), similar to what we saw above regarding the time after the festival.
Can we conclude from here that time is an existent entity? I am not sure, for we are speaking of a definition of a halakhic cheftza, not of a factual object. When speaking of a cheftza-status, one is not necessarily speaking about an existent reality but about a legal definition of the status.
[1] Seemingly, according to this we should not follow such a majority even in prohibitions and not only in monetary matters, and the Gemara’s wording that ties this specifically to monetary law is difficult.
[2] In such cases, majority overrides presumption, as we see in Niddah 18b (the infant found near the dough). See Kovetz Shiurim, Bava Batra §78, and Sha’arei Yosher, Gate 4 ch. 24, and many more.
[3] For an example of abstract “separation,” see the Mordechai in Chullin (cited in Column 237) regarding majority in a court. He writes that we follow the majority because the judge’s voice separated from its place. Clearly he does not mean physical separation of the voice but conceptual separation: something not lying in its place within the mixture.
[4] There is room to deliberate here, since at the moment of intercourse there was no doubt: the couple knew whether she was betrothed or not. The doubt arises in the court after the husband comes and complains—that is, long after the act. At that stage one might view the moment as if it had already “separated” and is no longer in its place. But it is more plausible that this is still kavuaʿ, for the moment that generated the doubt is the moment of intercourse, even if the doubt itself arose much later. However, according to my proposed explanation of kavuaʿ in Column 237, it is doubtful whether one can apply it in such a situation on the time axis.
[5] On this example and others, see the fourth volume in the series Talmudic Logic, The Logic of Time in the Talmud, chapter 11.
[6] One might argue that here the sukkah’s mitzvah has been performed, and therefore it reverts to non-sacred status, as with an offering whose mitzvah has been performed. But this does not seem correct, for usually “its mitzvah has been performed” refers to an act that removes the sanctity; thus, even when the mitzvah is performed, the lapse of sanctity is not “on its own” but via an act. Here, however, the lapse occurs at the end of eight days, without any act.
Discussion
The question whether majority is based on statistics is a different question. That is not what I dealt with here. But even regarding that, the answer is not simple. There is a statistical dimension to it, but halakhah adds other principles, sometimes only for the sake of simplicity. It may be that when there is a well-defined statistical calculation, we would follow it even with pieces of meat. The halakhic rules are somewhat formal, but it may be that this is only because there is no way to make a clear statistical calculation.
In the past I sent you a suggestion for explaining the law of “fixed” (kavua):
https://mikyab.net/%D7%A9%D7%95%D7%AA/%D7%94%D7%A6%D7%A2%D7%94-%D7%9C%D7%94%D7%A1%D7%91%D7%A8-%D7%93%D7%99%D7%9F-%D7%A7%D7%91%D7%95%D7%A2
In short, I wrote there that the law of kavua does not refer to fixedness in place, but to the existence of some choosing entity (a baby, a mouse, or a person), which transforms the probability distribution from a uniform distribution among different places into a uniform distribution among different choices. According to this suggestion, many of the difficulties you raised in this post are resolved.
Regarding the difficulty you mentioned in note 1 and left unresolved, I wanted to suggest an explanation:
In principle, we should have followed the majority in monetary cases as well (of plowing). But then a problem would arise: any player in the market who is interested in a transaction (= an ox for slaughter) that is not part of the majority class of transactions (= an ox for plowing) could be exploited by the claim that the transaction really belonged to the majority class of transactions, and the other side would not be able to defend itself against such a claim. To fix this loophole, the law is changed so that in monetary matters we do not follow such a majority. But in matters of prohibition, there is no one who can abuse this principle. That is, there is no other party here who can lie at someone else’s expense, and therefore here we can follow the original principle that one follows the majority.
What do you think?
Indeed. You are combining the two explanations. But then it will be difficult in the case of a mikveh.
Perhaps, but both sides are supposed to know that this can be abused, and they should secure this in advance and stipulate that the transaction is for plowing. You are, of course, limiting this only to transactions and not to all monetary laws.
Regarding the mikveh, I think it is similar to the case that a person does not repay before the due date. That is, the presumption that a person does not repay before his due date is not necessarily based on a majority that most people do not repay before their due date, but on a rationale that this presumption is correct and should be followed rather than the laws of majority. The same applies in the case of a mikveh: there is a halakhic rationale here that one should follow the laws of presumptions rather than the laws of majority.
That is not an explanation. Why don’t we follow the majority?
Maybe because one follows the majority only where we have a reason to be in doubt. But where there is a presumption, we have no reason to be in doubt.
You are assuming a non-necessary assumption regarding the relation between majority and presumption. Logically, the situation is the opposite: majority is a clarifying tool, and presumption is a rule of conduct for situations of doubt.
Beyond that, in the case of a mikveh there are two conflicting presumptions, the original presumption and the current one, and the most natural thing would be to decide by majority.
In any case, in my opinion the explanation of kavua is compelling and very plausible, and I see no need to look for another.
I again saw that the Rambam writes as follows:
Rambam, Laws of Mikvaot 10:6
And likewise, a mikveh that was measured and found deficient, whether the mikveh was in the public domain or in the private domain, all the pure items that were dealt with on its basis are retroactively impure until the time is known when it was measured and was complete. In what case is this said? When the immersion was from severe impurity. But if he immersed from a lighter impurity, for example, if he ate impure foods or drank impure liquids, or his head and most of his body came into drawn water, or three logs of drawn water fell on his head and most of his body – since the essence of these matters is rabbinic, then in a case of doubt it is pure, as we explained.
This implies that the rule being applied here is “in a Torah-level doubt, be stringent; in a rabbinic doubt, be lenient,” and not the laws of presumptions.
The first part of the halakhah (severe impurity) is determined by presumptions, since by the laws of doubts we ought to have distinguished between private and public domain. So too in the Gemara itself, as I mentioned in the post.
And the fact that in the case of light impurity we go leniently is apparently because the rule that a rabbinic doubt is treated leniently is said even where there is a presumption.
Even if most of the world is accustomed to buying oxen for plowing, does that in any way prove that this particular person did not want to buy one for slaughter? After all, there are people who buy oxen for slaughter, and it depends on their decision. ….. Is that an argument showing that I am wrong? I claim that I belong to the minority, and there is such a minority, and there is nothing illogical here. The fact that I happened to find myself in a situation where I belong to a minority group proves nothing at all about my claim (that it is illogical).
It is unclear – after all, the buyer claims that he belongs to the majority who buy for plowing – the seller claims that the buyer belongs to the minority. Why should we accept
that claim from him?
Further on –
If so, the majority determines that the mikveh became deficient after the immersion, and therefore the immersion did not count for him,
it seems to me that if it became deficient after the immersion – then the immersion did count for him
What is the question? That is what I explained. Statistics have no meaning here because the process is not random.
What does that have to do with immersion? I explained there exactly what the problem is.
You wrote:
“The majority determines that the mikveh became deficient after the immersion, and therefore the immersion did not count for him”
Perhaps it should read: “… therefore it did count for him”?
Indeed
It may perhaps be possible to answer in another way.
One could say that intercourse before betrothal and intercourse after betrothal are two acts of intercourse that are different in essence. Intercourse before betrothal is merely an act of intercourse, whereas intercourse after betrothal is an act of betrayal and an act of prohibition. And the doubt is not about one act and when it was done, but which act, out of two acts, was done before us. Consequently, the determination by majority is not relevant here, for the whole idea of majority is only to decide between belonging to a large group and belonging to a small group of the same kind. For example, if a piece of meat was found in the public domain and there is doubt from which shop it came, in a case where there are before us two groups of shops, a larger group and a smaller group, the power of the majority is to say that the piece came from the larger group of shops, and its law is like the law of the pieces in those shops. But in the question of which act was done here, it does not help to determine that it was done during the longer time period, or at one of the points in time belonging to the larger group of points, because the doubt is not when it was done but what was done. This is similar to a person who lit Hanukkah candles at a time when it is doubtful whether the sun had already set; surely one cannot determine on the basis of majority that he performed the act at a time when it was not Hanukkah (or not yet the time of obligation for that day), and therefore he did not fulfill his obligation. For the doubt is what kind of act occurred here: an act of lighting Hanukkah candles, or merely an act of igniting wicks. (Needless to say, even in cases where there is no linguistic distinction between an act performed at the time of obligation, which fulfills a law, and the same act at another time, which does not fulfill a law, there is of course still an essential distinction in that this act fulfills a law and that act does not.) And in order to decide the doubt about the lighting by majority, one would need a majority of valid lightings or invalid lightings to which the present lighting could be assigned. (And although there really is a majority of invalid lightings, that has no connection to the lighting before us, because this lighting did not separate from the other lightings as in ruba de-ita kaman, nor is there a natural tendency of invalid lightings as in ruba de-leita kaman.)
However, it may be that the case of lighting Hanukkah candles is different. For there we know more or less within what time frame the act of lighting was done, and within that framework there is no reason to give more weight to the time that is not the time of obligation than to the time of obligation. Usually the doubt is on the order of equal times before and after – say, something like 5 minutes before the time of obligation or 5 minutes after it. And it requires examination what the law would really be in a case where one side of the doubt is larger – suppose we are in doubt whether the lighting was 7 minutes before the time or 3 minutes after it.
In the case of a mikveh this is a bit more complicated, but here too one may perhaps answer on the basis of the same idea. The doubt is not about the hour at which the mikveh became deficient, but whether the one immersing performed a valid act of immersion or not (see Sha’arei Yosher 2:2, sec. 27 in the Bar-Ilan Responsa Project edition). And the reason the presumption of the mikveh helps at all to resolve the doubt is because a full mikveh is part of a valid act of immersion. An act of immersion is a person entering a place that contains the minimum of forty se’ah of water, and the question whether there were forty se’ah of water there or not is a question about the essence of the act that was done: was it an act of immersion, or merely an act of getting wet? And the presumption of the mikveh does not determine that the mikveh was not deficient at the time of immersion, but that there was here an act of immersion. For since without the doubt we would simply have assumed that there was here an act of immersion by virtue of the knowledge that at one point the mikveh was full, even after the doubt we should continue to maintain that assumption (there is implicit here a principle regarding presumptions, but this is not the place to elaborate). However, the majority that says the mikveh became deficient after the act of immersion is meaningless for the doubt, because the doubt is whether there was here an act of immersion or not, and the majority says nothing about that.
Entirely implausible. In the case of the shops too, you are asking whether it is kosher or trefah, and therefore by your approach one should not follow the majority of shops.
In a safek sefeika one raises a line of reasoning somewhat like this: there it is one name/one type of doubt. But that is not said in order to cancel a majority.
Sorry for the late response (I did not happen to get onto the site until now), but why is it entirely implausible? Because of the very distinction between intercourse while under him and not while under him, or because of the question from kosher and trefah meat?
On the first I have no way to argue (I do not know how one argues about a priori plausibility). But personally it sounds very plausible to me that a married woman who had intercourse with another man performed an act that is essentially different from an unmarried woman who merely had intercourse without kiddushin. As for the second, it seems to me that one can easily distinguish them, as follows.
The main thing I meant to argue is not that the sides of the doubt are always the question whether a prohibition exists, but the exact opposite. It seems clear to me that one cannot be in doubt directly about prohibition and permission. In my humble opinion, a doubt is not just any situation in which we lack information, but specifically a situation in which some reality is known to us, yet its details and interpretation are not sufficiently clear to us. Like the case of petach patuach, where we know that the woman had intercourse in the past, but we are in doubt whether this was while under him and willingly, or not while under him and under compulsion. If so, one cannot say that the doubt is whether there is a prohibition regarding this woman, for we have no way to know by direct perception the existence or absence of the prohibition, and the prohibition is also not an interpretation or detail of some other reality. Rather, the doubt about the facts gives rise to doubt about the law. And the doubt whether the intercourse was while under him or not gives rise to the question whether the woman is permitted or forbidden.
And both in the case of petach patuach and in the case of meat, the doubt is not about their legal status, and the sides of the doubt are not permitted and forbidden. Rather, the doubt is about the unclear matter in reality, which leads us to be in doubt about the law. And the sides of the doubt are the two possible interpretations of reality.
If so, the distinction between petach patuach and meat is self-evident. The unclear reality in the case of meat is not the act of slaughter performed on it. For we are dealing with a piece of meat found in the street, and presumably either it was slaughtered in a perfectly kosher manner or it is completely trefah. The only doubtful reality is the place from which the piece came into our possession. Had we followed the piece from the time of its slaughter until it reached us, we would have had no doubt at all about its status. It is only because we do not know from where it separated that we are in doubt about its kashrut. And such a doubt can certainly be decided by majority. Since most of the shops in the city are of a certain type, we may assume that the separation was from one of the majority shops and not from the minority. But in the case of petach patuach, one can say (at least in my opinion) that the unclear reality is what type of intercourse occurred with this woman: intercourse while under him, or intercourse not while under him. And from the doubt about the types of intercourse arises the legal doubt whether there is a prohibition on the husband to be with the woman. And a majority of time has no meaning at all in such a doubt. For although we can determine at what time the act was done, nevertheless that was not the doubt. As stated, a doubt is a situation of unclear reality before us whose different interpretations have a halakhic consequence. And in the case of petach patuach the halakhic consequence does not depend on the time when the act was done, but on the type of act that was done. And the power of halakhic clarifications is only to decide situations defined as doubt, not to clarify side data by means of which the doubt would then be resolved.
As for the comparison to “it is one type of doubt,” I did not quite understand the connection. To the best of my understanding and my limited memory, the principle stated in “it is one type of doubt” (according to some of the commentators on Tosafot, Ketubot 9a) is that in a case where the same reason for the law exists in two different situations, the matter is not treated as a double doubt but as one doubt. In the case of Tosafot there, the issue is when there is doubt whether the woman is permitted to her husband for one of two reasons – either because she had intercourse when she was a minor, and the seduction of a minor is considered coercion; or because even if she had intercourse when she was an adult, perhaps the act was under compulsion and not willingly. And the novelty in Tosafot is that although these are two different situations of coercion, coercion in adulthood and coercion in minority, such a case is not treated as a safek sefeika. And the reason is that since the basis for permitting the woman in both doubts is that the intercourse was under compulsion, these are not two different doubts but one doubt of coercion versus willingness.
But it is not said there that the two permissive sides join into one side because both indicate a ruling of permission. For if so, there would never be a case of safek sefeika, since in a safek sefeika there are always two sides that indicate one halakhic ruling.
(According to the commentators who understand Tosafot there as referring to a double doubt that is not reversible, the connection to the present discussion is even less clear.)
From the sugyot it is certainly clear that majority is not built on statistics. After all, in every case of korva de-muchach, by its very definition, in that very place itself there is a majority for what is nearer; and still we examine the majority of the city, and if the doors of the province are open – also the imported meat. We weigh all the possible sides, and from them construct a majority of the sides, rather than weighing each side on its own – whether it is likely that imported meat would reach this place just like local meat. And seemingly therefore in the case of a mikveh too there are two sides – valid or invalid – and so we give them equal probability, and likewise regarding petach patuach.